Related provisions for BIPRU 12.7.9

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LR 9.3.11RRP
A listed company proposing to issue equity securities7 for cash or to sell treasury shares that are equity shares8for cash must first offer those equity securities7 in proportion to their existing holdings to:78887(1) existing holders of that class of equity shares (other than the listed company itself by virtue of it holding treasury shares); and(2) holders of other equity shares of the listed company who are entitled to be offered them.
LR 9.3.12RRP
LR 9.3.11 R does not apply to:8(1) a listed company incorporated in the United Kingdom if a 8disapplication of statutory pre-emption rights has been authorised by shareholders in accordance with section 57053(Disapplication of pre-emption rights: directors acting under general authorisation) or section 571 (Disapplication of pre-emption rights by special resolution) of the Companies Act 2006 and the issue of equity securities78 or sale of treasury shares that are equity shares
COLL 5.1.2GRP
(1) This chapter helps in achieving the statutory objective of protecting consumers by laying down minimum standards for the investments that may be held by an authorised fund. In particular:(a) the proportion of transferable securities and derivatives that may be held by an authorised fund is restricted if those transferable securities and derivatives are not listed on an eligible market; the intention of this is to restrict investment in transferable securities or derivatives
COLL 5.1.4GRP

This table belongs to COLL 5.1.2G (2).

Scheme investments and investment techniques

Limits for UCITS schemes

Limits for non-UCITS retail schemes

Permissible investment

Maximum limit

Permissible investment

Maximum limit

Approved securities

Yes

None

Yes

None

Transferable securities that are not approved securities

Yes

10%

Yes

20%

Government and public securities

Yes

None

Yes

None

Regulated schemes other than qualified investor schemes1

Yes

None

Yes

None

Unregulated schemes and qualified investor schemes1

No

N/A

Yes

20%(C)1

Warrants

Yes

None

Yes

None

Investment trusts

Yes

None

Yes

None

Deposits

Yes

None

Yes

None

Derivatives

Yes

None

Yes

None

Immovables (i.e real property)

No

N/A

Yes

None

Gold

No

N/A

Yes

10%

Hedging

Yes

None

Yes

None

Stock lending

Yes

None

Yes

None

Underwriting

Yes

None

Yes

None

Borrowing

Yes

10% (T)

Yes

10%

Cash and near cash

Yes

None

Yes

None

Note:

Meaning of terms used:

A percentage

an upper limit (though there may be limits of other kinds).

"(T)"

temporary only- see COLL 5.5.4R(4)

"N/A"

Not applicable1

1“(C)”

In the case of a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF there is no maximum limit - see COLL 5.7.7 R.

PR 4.1.4RRP
If admission to trading of non-equity transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount) is sought in the United Kingdom or in one or more other EEA States, the prospectus must be drawn up in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting admission (as
PR 4.1.6RRP
If:(1) an offer is made in the United Kingdom;(2) a prospectus relating to the transferable securities has been approved by the competent authority of another EEA State and the prospectus contains a summary; and(3) the prospectus is drawn up in a language other than English that is customary in the sphere of international finance;222the offeror must ensure that the summary is translated into English. [ Note: article 19.2 PD ]
PR 2.5.1RRP
Without prejudice to the adequate information of investors, if, in exceptional cases, certain information referred to in the PD Regulation that is required to be included in a prospectus is inappropriate to the issuer's activity or to the legal form of the issuer or to the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, the prospectus must contain information equivalent to the required information (unless there is no such information). [Note: article 8.3 PD]
PR 2.5.1AUKRP

1Section 87A(2A) of the Act provides that information about certain guarantors may be omitted from a prospectus:

87A

(2A)

If, in the case of transferable securities to which section 87 applies, the prospectus states that the guarantor is a specified EEA State, the prospectus is not required to include other information about the guarantor.

LR 14.2.1RRP
An applicant which is applying for standard listing2 (shares) 4must comply with all of LR 2 (Requirements for listing: All securities).2424
LR 14.2.5GRP
A company2 applying for a standard listing2 of shares4will need to comply with LR 3 (Listing applications: All securities2).2243
PERG 8.36.3GRP

Table Controlled activities

1.

Accepting deposits

2.

Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance

3.

Dealing in securities and contractually based investments

4.

Arranging deals in investments

4A.4

Operating a multilateral trading facility4

5.

Managing investments

6.

Safeguarding and administering investments

7.

Advising on investments

8.

Advising on syndicate participation at Lloyd's

9.

Providing funeral plan contracts

10.

Providing qualifying credit

11.3

3

Arranging qualifying credit etc

12.3

3

Advising on qualifying credit etc

313.

Providing a home reversion plan

314.

Arranging a home reversion plan

315.

Advising on a home reversion plan

316.

Providing a home purchase plan

317.

Arranging a home purchase plan

318.

Advising on a home purchase plan

718A.

Providing a regulated sale and rent back agreement

718B.

Arranging a regulated sale and rent back agreement

718C.

Advising on a regulated sale and rent back agreement

19.3

3

Agreeing to do anything in 3 to 18C7 above

37
PERG 8.36.6GRP

Table Application of Exemptions to Forms of Promotions

Financial Promotion Order

Applies to

Article No.

Title and PERG 8 reference (where applicable)

Unsolicited real time

Solicited real time

Non-real time

(solicited or unsolicited)

12

Communications to overseas recipients (8.12.2G)

*1

*

*

13

Communications from customers and potential customers (8.12.9G)

*

*

*

14

Follow up non-real time communications and solicited real time communications (8.12.10G)

*

*

15

Introductions (8.12.11G)

*

*

*1

16

Exempt persons (8.12.12G)

*2

*3

*3

17

Generic promotions (8.12.14G and 8.21.4G)

*

*

*

17A1

Communications caused to be made or directed by unauthorised persons (8.6.7AG)

*

*

*

18

Mere conduits (8.12.18G)

*

*

*

18A

Outgoing electronic commerce communications: mere conduits, caching and hosting (8.12.18G)1

*

*

*

19

Investment professionals (8.12.21G and 8.21.5G)

*

*

*

20

Communications by journalists (8.12.23G)

*

20A

Promotion broadcast by company director etc (8.12.23G and 8.21.6G)

*

*

*

20B

Incoming electronic commerce communications (8.12.38G)

*

*

*

22

Deposits : non-real time communications (8.13)

*

23

Deposits : real time communications (8.13)

*

*

24

Relevant insurance activity : non-real time communications (8.13)

*

25

Relevant insurance activity : non-real time communications : reinsurance and large risks (8.13)

*

26

Relevant insurance activity : real time communications (8.13)

*

*

28

One-off non-real time communications and solicited real time communications (8.14.3G)

*

*

28A

One-off unsolicited real time communications (8.14.11G)

*

28B1

Real time communications: introductions in connection with qualifying credit (8.17.12G)

*

*

29

Communications required or authorised by enactments

*

*

*

30

Overseas communicators: solicited real time communications (8.14.15G)

*

31

Overseas communicators: non-real time communications to previously overseas customers (8.14.17G)

*

32

Overseas communicators: unsolicited real time communications to previously overseas customers (8.14.16G)

*

33

Overseas communicators: unsolicited real time communications to knowledgeable customers (8.14.16G)

*

34

Governments, central banks etc

*

*

35

Industrial and provident societies

*

*

36

Nationals of the EEA States other than United Kingdom (8.14.18G)

*

*

37

Financial markets

*

*

38

Persons in the business of placing promotional material

*

*

*

39

Joint enterprises (8.14.19G)

*

*

*

40

Participants in certain recognised collective investment schemes

*

*

41

Bearer instruments: promotions required or permitted by market rules (8.14.42G)

*

*

42

Bearer instruments: promotions to existing holders (8.14.42G)

*

*

43

Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate (8.14.41G and 8.21.8G)

*

*

44

Members and creditors of open-ended investment companies

*

*

45

Group companies

*

*

*

46

Qualifying credit to bodies corporate (8.17.10G)1

*

*

*

47

Persons in the business of disseminating information (8.21.10G)

*

*

*

48

Certified high net worth individuals (8.14.21G)

*

*

49

High net worth companies, unincorporated associations etc (8.14.25G)

*

*

*

50

Sophisticated investors (8.14.27G)

*

*

*

50A

Self-certified sophisticated investors {8.14.28AG)

*5

*

*

51

Associations of high net worth or sophisticated investors (8.14.29G)

*

*

52

Common interest group of a company (8.14.30G)

*

*

53

Settlors, trustees and personal representatives

*

*

*

54

Beneficiaries of trust, will or intestacy

*

*

*

55

Communications by members of professions (8.15.1G)

*

*

55A

Non-real time communication by members of the professions. (8.15.5G)

*

56

Remedy following report by Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration

*

*

*

57

Persons placing promotional material in particular publications

*

*

*

58

Acquisition of interest in premises run by management companies

*

*

59

Annual accounts and directors' report (8.21.11G)

*

*

*

60

Participation in employee shares schemes

*

*

*

61

Sale of goods and supply of services

*

*

62

Sale of body corporate (8.14.35G)

*

*

*

64

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies

*

*

*

65

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies: warrants etc

*

*

*

66

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies: application forms

*

*

*

67

Promotions required or permitted by market rules (8.21.13G)

*

*

68

Promotions in connection with admission to certain EEA markets (8.21.16G)

*

*

69

Promotions of securities already admitted to certain markets (8.21.17G)

*

*1

701

Promotions included in listing particulars etc (8.21.20G)1

*1

711

Material relating to prospectus for public offer of unlisted securities

*1

721

Pension products offered by employers (8.14.40AG8)

*

*

*

872A

Pension product offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40AAG)

*

*

*

872B

Insurance product offers communicated to employees by employers (8.14.40ABG)

*

*

*

872C

Insurance products offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40ACG)

*

*

*

872D

Staff mortgage offers communicated to employees by employers (8.14.40ADG)

*

*

*

872E

Staff mortgage offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40AEG)

*

*

*

731

Advice centres (8.14.40B)

*

*

*

1 in limited circumstances only – see article 12(2) of the Financial Promotion Order

2 for the purpose of article 16 (2) only

3 for the purpose of article 16 (1) only1

PR 3.4.1UKRP

Section 87G of the Act provides that:

(1)

Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [FCA].

(2)

The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FCA] for its approval.

(3)

The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FCA] and ends –

(a)

with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

4(3A)

But where the prospectus relates both to an offer of transferable securities to the public and the admission of those securities to trading on a regulated market, subsection (3) does not apply and the relevant period beings when the prospectus is approved and ends with the later of -

(a)

the closure of the offer to the public to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

the time when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

(4)

"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).

(5)

Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and

(b)

the person on whose application the prospectus was approved.

(6)

A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it.

(7)

Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section.

PERG 2.5.4ARP
2The UK has exercised the optional exemption in article 3 of MiFID. Further information about this exemption is contained in Q48 to 53 in PERG 13.5. It is a requirement of article 3 MiFID that the activities of firms relying on the exemption are "regulated at national level". The investment services to which article 3 apply (namely reception and transmission of orders and investment advice in relation to either transferable securities or units in collective investment undertakings)
PERG 2.5.5GRP
For persons who are MiFID2investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by MiFID2. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by MiFID2) have been made unavailable to MiFID2investment firms when they provide or perform investment services and activities. A "MiFID investment firm", for these purposes, includes credit institutions to which MiFID applies
IFPRU 6.1.15RRP
Under article 327(2) of the EU CRR (Netting), the netting of a convertible and an offsetting position in the underlying instrument is permitted.
IFPRU 6.1.16GRP
For the purpose of IFPRU 6.1.15 R, the convertible should be:(1) treated as a position in the equity into which it converts; and(2) the firm's own funds requirement for the general and specific risk in its equity instruments should be adjusted by making: (a) an addition equal to the current value of any loss which the firm would make if it did convert to equity; or(b) a deduction equal to the current value of any profit which the firm would make if it did convert to equity (subject
LR 11.1.4ARRP
5In LR, a "substantial shareholder” means any person who is entitled to exercise, or to control the exercise of, 10% or more of the votes able to be cast on all or substantially all matters at general meetings of the company (or of any company which is its subsidiary undertaking or parent undertaking or of a fellow subsidiary undertaking of its parent undertaking). For the purposes of calculating voting rights, the following voting rights are to be disregarded:(1) any voting
PR 1.1.1RRP
(1) 1PR 2, PR 3, PR 4.2, PR 5.1, PR 5.3.1 UK to PR 5.3.3 G and PR 5.5 only apply (subject to paragraph (2)) in relation to:(a) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, in respect of which section 85 of the Act applies (other than an exempt offer under section 86 of the Act) and in relation to which the United Kingdom is the Home State;(b) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, where under section 87 of the
PR 1.1.4RRP
If a rule does not specify who is responsible for complying with it, then the following persons must comply with it:(1) in relation to an offer:(a) the issuer; and(b) the offeror (if this is a person other than the issuer);(2) in relation to a request for the admission to trading of transferable securities:(a) the issuer; and(b) the person requesting admission to trading (if this is a person other than the issuer).
REC 3.15.3RRP
Where a UK recognised body suspends providing clearing facilitation services generally in respect of any derivative (other than an option in relation to a security), type of security or type of option in relation to a security, it must immediately give the FCA notice of that event, particulars of that derivative, type of security or type of option in relation to a security, as the case may be, and the reasons for the action taken.33
REC 3.15.5GRP
Specified investments (other than securities or options in relation to securities) falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order will normally be regarded as being assets of the same type. Securities falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order which may be given the same generic description (for example, shares admitted to the UK official list) will normally be regarded as being of the same type. Options in relation
GENPRU 2.2.68GRP
The appropriate regulator considers that dividend pushers diminish the quality of capital by breaching the principle of complete discretion over coupons set out in GENPRU 2.2.64R (4). A dividend pusher operates so that, in a given period of time, payments must be made on senior securities if payments have previously been made on junior securities or securities ranking pari passu. As such, dividend pushers may not be included in the terms of tier one capital, unless the firm has
GENPRU 2.2.129RRP
The SPV referred to in GENPRU 2.2.124R (2)(a) must fund its subscription for the capital issued by the firm by the issue of capital that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it must comply with the conditions for qualification as tier one capital, as amended by GENPRU 2.2.130 R, as if the SPV was itself a firm seeking to include that capital in its tier one capital resources;(2) 48(a) its terms must include an obligation on the firm that, in the event of a collapse of the SPV
GENPRU 2.2.260RRP
Illiquid assets means illiquid assets including(1) tangible fixed assets (except land and buildings if they are used by a firm as security for loans, but this exclusion is only up to the value of the principal outstanding on the loans); or(2) any holdings in the capital resources of credit institutions or financial institutions, except to the extent that:(a) they have already been deducted as a material holding; or(b) they are shares which are included in a firm'strading book
IFPRU 2.3.63GRP
(1) A securities firm may consider the impact of the following situations on its capital levels when assessing its exposure to concentration risk: (a) the potential loss that could arise from large exposures to a single counterparty; (b) the potential loss that could arise from exposures to large transactions or to a product type; and(c) the potential loss resulting from a combination of events such as a sudden increase in volatility leaving a hitherto fully-margined client unable
IFPRU 2.3.64GRP
Where a securities firm deals in illiquid securities (eg, unlisted securities or securities listed on illiquid markets) or holds illiquid assets, potentially large losses can arise from trades that have failed to settle or because of large unrealised market losses. Therefore, a securities firm may consider the impact of liquidity risk on its exposure to: (1) credit risk; and(2) market risk.
IFPRU 2.3.65GRP
Counterparty risk requirements only partially capture the risk of settlement failure, as the quantification of risk is only based on mark-to-market values and does not take account of the volatility of the securities over the settlement period. A securities firm's assessment of its exposure to counterparty risk should take into account: (1) whether it acts as arranger only or whether it also executes trades;(2) the types of execution venues which it uses - for example, the London
BIPRU 7.10.21GRP
The broad classes of position referred to in BIPRU 7.10.20G are as follows:(1) linear products, which comprise securities with linear pay-offs (e.g. bonds and equities) and derivative products which have linear pay-offs in the underlying risk factor (e.g. interest rate swaps, FRAs, total return swaps);(2) European, American and Bermudan put and call options (including caps, floors and swaptions) and investments with these features (see BIPRU 7.6.18R (Table: Option PRR: methods
BIPRU 7.10.55JRRP
(1) 3Hedges may be incorporated into the calculation of a firm'sincremental risk charge. Positions may be netted only when long and short positions refer to the same financial instrument.(2) Hedging or diversification effects associated with long and short positions involving different instruments or different securities of the same obligor, as well as long and short positions in different issuers, may only be recognised by explicitly modelling gross long and short positions in
BIPRU 7.10.141GRP
The treatment of a convertible is an example of a situation in which BIPRU 7.10.140R applies. The table in BIPRU 7.3.3R (Table: Instruments which result in notional positions) shows that there are circumstances in which under the standard market risk PRR rules a firm should calculate an equity PRR and that there are circumstances in which a firm may choose between calculating an equity PRR and an interest rate PRR. BIPRU 7.10.140R would be relevant if a firm'sVaR model permission
PERG 2.6.17GRP
The specified investment category of units in a collective investment scheme includes units in a unit trust scheme or authorised contractual scheme10, shares in open-ended investment companies and rights in respect of most limited partnerships and all limited partnership schemes10. Shares in or securities of an open-ended investment company are treated differently from shares in other companies. They are excluded from the specified investment category of shares. This does not
PERG 2.6.19FGRP
9For the purposes of the RAO, this specified investment is not a security, contractually-based investment or a relevant investment.
PERG 2.6.20GRP
The specified investment category of options comprises:444(1) 4options to acquire or dispose of securities or contractually based investments, currency and certain precious metals and options to acquire or dispose of such options. Options to buy or sell other types of commodity will only fall within this specified investment category if they are options to buy or sellfutures, or options to buy or sellcontracts for differences, which are based on other commodities. But options
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees payable to the FCA78

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

78

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957829578295782978297829

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555785785

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27829782978

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the

appropriate regulator

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the

appropriate regulator

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the

appropriate regulator

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the

appropriate regulator's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the appropriate regulator would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

except in the cases specified in FEES 3 Annex 6A

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 78 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

17878111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713797227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA77 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.77

77The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7777

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78
78 91678

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

33(zr) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.

1,500

On or before the application for approval is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

LR 5.5.3GRP
(1) The FCA will not automatically suspend, cancel or restore the listing of securities at the request of an overseas exchange or overseas authority (for example, if listing of a listed3issuer'ssecurities are suspended, cancelled or restored on its home exchange).(2) The FCA will not normally suspend the listing of securities where there is a trading halt for the security on its home exchange.(3) If a listedissuer3 requests a suspension, cancellation or restoration of the listing
BIPRU 5.3.3RRP
For on-balance sheet netting agreements - other than master netting agreements covering repurchase transactions, securities or commodities lending or borrowing transactions and/or other capital market-driven transactions – to be recognised for the purposes of BIPRU 5 the following conditions must be satisfied:(1) they must be legally effective and enforceable in all relevant jurisdictions, including in the event of the insolvency or bankruptcy of a counterparty;(2) the firm must