Related provisions for BIPRU 4.3.86

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SUP 4.3.13RRP
An actuary appointed to perform the actuarial function must, in respect of those classes of the firm's long-term insurance business which are covered by his appointment1:1(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on1 the risks the firm runs in1 so far as they may have a material impact on the firm's ability to meet liabilities to policyholders in respect of long-term insurance contracts as they fall due and on the capital needed
BIPRU 7.9.12GRP
As part of the model review process, the following may be reviewed: organisational structure and personnel; details of the firm's market position in the relevant products; profit and risk information; valuation and reserving policies; operational controls; IT systems; model release and control procedures; risk management and control framework; risk appetite and limit structure and future developments relevant to model recognition.
BIPRU 4.7.28RRP
(1) With regard to the development and use of internal models for capital requirement purposes, a firm must establish policies, procedures, and controls to ensure the integrity of the model and modelling process. These policies, procedures, and controls must include the ones set out in the rest of this paragraph.(2) There must be full integration of the internal model into the overall management information systems of the firm and in the management of the non-trading bookequity
SUP App 2.15.9GRP

These tables belong to SUP App 2.15.8 G

Table 1 - forecast summary revenue account for the relevant with-profits fund

(1)

Premiums and claims (gross and net of reinsurance) analysed by major class of insurance business

(2)

Investment return

(3)

Expenses

(4)

Other charges and income

(5)

Taxation

(6)

Increase (decrease) in fund in financial year

(7)

Fund brought forward

(8)

Fund carried forward

Table 2 - forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the relevant with-profits fund

Assets analysed by type (excluding implicit items):

(1)

Equities

(2)

Land and buildings

(3)

Fixed interest investments

(4)

All other assets

(5)

Total assets (excluding implicit items)

(6)

Policyholder liabilities

(7)

Other liabilities

(8)

Total liabilities

(9)

Excess/(deficiency) of assets over liabilities before implicit items

(10)

Implicit items allocated to the with-profits fund

(11)

Long-term insurance capital requirement for the with-profits fund

(12)

Resilience capital requirement for the with-profits fund

(13)

With-profits insurance capital component (for realistic basis life firms only)

(14)

Net excess/(deficiency) of assets in the with-profits fund

Table 3 - forecast summary balance sheet and statement of solvency for the firm

L1

Surplus long-term insurance assets, with-profit fund(s)

L2

Surplus long-term insurance assets, non-profit fund(s)

L3

Total long-term insurance assets

L1+L2

L4

Total long-term insurance liabilities (excluding resilience capital requirement)

L5

Total long-term insurance fund surplus

L3-L4

L6

Shareholder fund assets

L7

Implicit items

L8

Long-term insurance capital requirement

L9

Excess of regulatory assets over long-term insurance capital requirement

L5+L6+L7-L8

L10

With-profits insurance capital component

For realistic basis life firms only.

L11

Resilience capital requirement

L12

Net excess assets

L9-L10-L11

L13

FTSE level at which the long-term insurance capital requirement would be breached

SYSC 12.1.12RRP
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) must include:(1) mechanisms that are adequate to identify and measure all material risks incurred by members of the financial conglomerate and appropriately relate capital in the financial conglomerate to risks; and(2) sound reporting and accounting procedures for the purpose of identifying, measuring, monitoring and controlling intra-group transactions
IFPRU 4.12.25GRP
As part of the notification and permissions process, the FCA expects the firm to inform it of the methodology it intends to use to calculate securitisation capital requirements.
DEPP 6.4.2GRP
The criteria for determining whether it is appropriate to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty include those factors that the FCA2 will consider in1 determining the amount of penalty set out in DEPP 6.5 A to DEPP 6.5 D.1 Some particular considerations that may be relevant when the FCA2 determines whether to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty are:122(1) whether or not deterrence may be effectively achieved by issuing a public
BIPRU 8.8.3RRP
Even if a firm has an advanced prudential calculation approach permission that allows it to use an advanced prudential calculation approach for the purposes of this chapter, the firm may not use the requirements of another state or territory to the extent they provide for that advanced prudential calculation approach. Therefore a firm may not use BIPRU 8.7.34 R and 2BIPRU 8.7.37 R2 (Use of the capital requirements of another EEA competent authority)2 if that would involve using
INSPRU 7.1.99GRP
Where a firm considers that the capital resources requirements of GENPRU 2.1 require the holding of more capital than is needed for the firm to comply with GENPRU 1.2.26 R then the firm may apply to the appropriate regulator for a waiver of the requirements in GENPRU 2.1 under sections 138A and 138B of the Act. In addition to the statutory tests under sections 138A and 138B in deciding whether to grant a waiver and, if granted, its terms, the appropriate regulator will consider
MAR 8.2.3RRP
A benchmark submitter who maintains an establishment in the United Kingdom must: (1) appoint a benchmark manager with responsibility for the oversight of its compliance with this chapter; and(2) ensure that its benchmark manager has a level of authority and access to resources and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility.
COND 2.4.2GRP
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
MIPRU 4.3.1RRP
This section contains provisions relating to the calculation of annual income for the purposes of: (1) the limits of indemnity for professional indemnity insurance; and(2) the capital resources requirements.
IFPRU 2.1.4GRP
This section has rules requiring a firm to identify and assess risks to its ability to meet its liabilities as they fall due, how it intends to deal with those risks, and the amount and nature of financial resources that the firm considers necessary. IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessment) provides that a firm should document that assessment. The FCA will review that assessment as part of its own assessment of the adequacy of a firm's capital under its supervisory review
GENPRU 3.1.29RRP
If,5 with respect to a firm and a financial conglomerate of which it is a member, this rule applies under GENPRU 3.1.29A R5 to the firm with respect to that financial conglomerate as described in GENPRU 3.1.30 R, the firm must at all times have capital resources of an amount and type that ensures that the conglomerate capital resources of that financial conglomerate at all times equal or exceed its conglomerate capital resources requirement.5
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.

SUP 7.3.3GRP
Pursuant to sections 55L, 55N, 55O, 55P and 55Q of the Act, within the scope of its functions and powers, the FCA5may seek to impose requirements which include but are not restricted to:55(1) requiring a firm to submit regular reports covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) where appropriate, 5requiring a firm to maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures, foreign currency exposures or liquidity
SUP 16.18.4EURP

Reporting to competent authorities

1.

In order to comply with the requirements of the second subparagraph of Article 24(1) and of point (d) of Article 3(3) of Directive 2011/61/EU, an AIFM shall provide the following information when reporting to competent authorities:

(a)

the main instruments in which it is trading, including a break-down of financial instruments and other assets, including the AIF's investment strategies and their geographical and sectoral investment focus;

(b)

the markets of which it is a member or where it actively trades;

(c)

the diversification of the AIF's portfolio, including, but not limited to, its principal exposures and most important concentrations.

The information shall be provided as soon as possible and not later than one month after the end of the period referred to in paragraph 3. Where the AIF is a fund of funds this period may be extended by the AIFM by 15 days.

2.

For each of the EU AIFs they manage and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union, AIFMs shall provide to the competent authorities of their home Member State the following information in accordance with Article 24(2) of Directive 2011/61/EU:

(a)

the percentage of the AIF's assets which are subject to special arrangements as defined in Article 1(5) of this Regulation arising from their illiquid nature as referred to in point (a) of Article 23(4) of Directive 2011/61/EU;

(b)

any new arrangements for managing the liquidity of the AIF;

(c)

the risk management systems employed by the AIFM to manage the market risk, liquidity risk, counterparty risk and other risks including operational risk;

(d)

the current risk profile of the AIF, including:

(i)

the market risk profile of the investments of the AIF, including the expected return and volatility of the AIF in normal market conditions;

(ii)

the liquidity profile of the investments of the AIF, including the liquidity profile of the AIF's assets, the profile of redemption terms and the terms of financing provided by counterparties to the AIF;

(e)

information on the main categories of assets in which the AIF invested including the corresponding short market value and long market value, the turnover and performance during the reporting period; and

(f)

the results of periodic stress tests, under normal and exceptional circumstances, performed in accordance with point (b) of Article 15(3) and the second subparagraph of Article 16(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU.

3.

The information referred to in paragraphs 1 and 2 shall be reported as follows:

(a)

on a half-yearly basis by AIFMs managing portfolios of AIFs whose assets under management calculated in accordance with Article 2 in total exceed the threshold of either EUR 100 million or EUR 500 million laid down in points (a) and (b) respectively of Article 3(2) of Directive 2011/61/EU but do not exceed EUR 1 billion, for each of the EU AIFs they manage and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union;

(b)

on a quarterly basis by AIFMs managing portfolios of AIFs whose assets under management calculated in accordance with Article 2 in total exceed EUR 1 billion, for each of the EU AIFs they manage, and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union;

(c)

on a quarterly basis by AIFMs which are subject to the requirements referred to in point (a) of this paragraph, for each AIF whose assets under management, including any assets acquired through use of leverage, in total exceed EUR 500 million, in respect of that AIF;

(d)

on an annual basis by AIFMs in respect of each unleveraged AIF under their management which, in accordance with its core investment policy, invests in non-listed companies and issuers in order to acquire control.

4.

By way of derogation from paragraph 3, the competent authority of the home Member State of the AIFM may deem it appropriate and necessary for the exercise of its function to require all or part of the information to be reported on a more frequent basis.

5.

AIFMs managing one or more AIFs which they have assessed to be employing leverage on a substantial basis in accordance with Article 111 of this Regulation shall provide the information required under Article 24(4) of Directive 2011/61/EU at the same time as that required under paragraph 2 of this Article.

6.

AIFMs shall provide the information specified under paragraphs 1, 2 and 5 in accordance with the pro-forma reporting template set out in the Annex IV.

7.

In accordance with point (a) of Article 42(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU, for non-EU AIFMs, any reference to the competent authorities of the home Member State shall mean the competent authority of the Member State of reference.

[Note: Article 110 of the AIFMD level 2 regulation]

SUP App 3.9.5GRP

3Table 2: MiFIDinvestment services and activities

Part II RAO Investments

Part III RAO Investments

A MiFIDinvestment services and activities

1.

Reception and transmission of orders in relation to one or more financial instruments

Article 252

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

2.

Execution of orders on behalf of clients

Article 14, 21

A Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

3.

Dealing on own account

Article 14

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

4.

Portfolio management

Article 37 (14, 21, 25 - see Note 1) 2

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

5.

Investment advice

Article 53

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

6.

Underwriting of financial instruments and/or placing of financial instruments on a firm commitment basis

Article 14, 21

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

7.

Placing of financial instruments without a firm commitment basis

Article 21, 25

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

8.

Operation of Multilateral Trading Facilities

Article 25D5 (see Note 2)

5

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

Ancillary services

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Safekeeping and administration of financial instruments for the account of clients, including custodianship and related services such as cash/collateral management

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

2.

Granting credits or loans to an investor to allow him to carry out a transaction in one or more of the relevant instruments where the firm granting the credit or loan is involved

3.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related matters and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

4.

Foreign exchange services where these are connected with the provision of investment services

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 83-85, 89

5.

Investment research and financial analysis or other forms of general recommendation relating to transactions in financial instruments

Article 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

6.

Services related to underwriting

Article 25, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

7.

Investment services and activities as well as ancillary services of the type included under Section A or B of Annex I related to the underlying of the derivatives included under Section C 5, 6, 7 and 10-where these are connected to the provision of investment or ancillary services.

Article 14, 21, 25, 25D,5 37, 53, 64

5

Article 83 and 84

Note 1. A firm may also carry on these other activities when it is managing investments.2

Note 2. A firm operating an MTF under article 25D5 does not need to have a permission covering other regulated activities, unless it performs other regulated activities in addition to operating an MTF.

5
GEN 2.2.25GRP
36Examples of rules being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23 R include the following:(1) [deleted]1212(2) SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1 R should be interpreted:(a) as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person's compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies
SYSC 7.1.17RRP
(1) 13The management body of a CRR firm has overall responsibility for risk management. It must devote sufficient time to the consideration of risk issues.(2) The management body of a CRR firm must be actively involved in and ensure that adequate resources are allocated to the management of all material risks addressed in the rules implementing the CRD and in the EU CRR as well as in the valuation of assets, the use of external ratings and internal models related to those risks.