Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2
181 - 200 of 761 items.
SUP 10.8: the systems and controls function. This is the function of acting as an employee with responsibility for reporting to the committee of management in relation to: (1) the credit union's financial affairs; or(2) setting and controlling its risk exposure; or (3) adherence to internal systems and controls, procedures and policies.
(1) The FCA may dispense with or modify the listing rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of EU directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer or sponsor has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the relevance
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify a listing rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required by
If an issuer applies to the FCA to dispense with or modify a listing rule on the basis that it is in severe financial difficulty, the FCA would ordinarily expect the issuer to comply with the conditions in LR 10.8 (to the extent relevant to the particular rule for which the dispensation or modification is sought). In particular, the FCA would expect the issuer to comply with those conditions that are directed at demonstrating that it is in severe financial difficulty.
An issuer or sponsor should consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if it:
- (1)
is in doubt about how the listing rules apply in a particular situation; or
- (2)
considers that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a listing rule.
2Where a listing rule refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency or in the case of a submission from a sponsor in relation to the provision of a sponsor service.
Address for correspondence
Note:The FCA's address for correspondence is:
The Financial Conduct Authority |
25 The North Colonnade |
Canary Wharf |
London, E14 5HS |
Tel: 020 7066 8333 |
(1) Section 55C of the Financial Services Act 2012 (Power to amend Schedule 6) gave HM Treasury the power to amend Schedule 6 of the Act. HM Treasury exercised this power by making The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Threshold Conditions) Order 2013 which entered into force on 1 April 2013 (the "TC Order"). The TC Order's main result is the creation of four sets of threshold conditions, namely:(i) conditions for firms authorised and regulated by the FCA only (paragraphs
(1) As a result of the new legal framework for threshold conditions described in COND 1.1A.1G (1), PRA-authorised persons and firms seeking to become PRA-authorised persons are subject to two sets of threshold conditions:(i) the FCA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(ii)and(ii) one of the two PRA-specific conditions referred to in COND 1.1A.1G (1)(iii) or (iv), depending on the PRA-regulated activities which the PRA-authorised person or firm carries on, or is
COND applies to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms as set out below:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which does not carry on any PRA-regulated activities, FCAthreshold conditions 2C to 2F apply; and(2) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm which carries on a PRA-regulated activity, FCAthreshold conditions 3B to 3E apply.FCAthreshold conditions apply to incoming EEA firms and incoming Treaty firms only in as far as relevant to the
If a decision maker is asked to decide whether to give a decision notice or second supervisory notice, it will:(1) review the material before it;(2) consider any representations made (whether written, oral or both) and any comments by FCA1 staff or others in respect of those representations;1(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
If the FCA1 receives no response or representations within the period specified in a warning notice, the decision maker may regard as undisputed the allegations or matters in that notice and a decision notice will be given accordingly. A person who has received a decision notice and has not previously made any response or representations to the FCA1, may nevertheless refer the FCA's1 decision to the Tribunal.111
If the FCA1 receives no response or representations within the period specified in a first supervisory notice, the FCA1 will not give a second supervisory notice. The outcome depends on when the relevant action took or takes effect (as stated in the notice). If the action:11(1) took effect immediately, or on a specified date which has already passed, it continues to have effect (subject to any decision on a referral to the Tribunal); or(2) was to take effect on a specified date
Under section 388(3) of the Act, following the giving of a decision notice but before the FCA1 takes action to which the decision notice relates, the FCA1 may give the person concerned a further decision notice relating to different action concerning the same matter. Under section 388(4) of the Act, the FCA1 can only do this if the person receiving the further decision notice gives its consent. In these circumstances the following procedure will apply:111(1) FCA1staff will recommend
(1) When deciding whether to take enforcement
action under Part 7 of the RCB Regulations,
and what form that enforcement action should take, the FCA will consider all relevant factors,
including:(a) the relevant factors on decisions to take action set out in DEPP 6.2.1 G;(b) whether any contractual or other arrangements agreed between the
parties can be used effectively to address any perceived failure under the RCB Regulations; and(c) the interests of investors in the relevant
When considering whether to impose
a financial penalty, the amount of penalty, and whether to impose the penalty
on the issuer or the owner, the FCA will have regard, where relevant,1 to:(1) the statement on determining the appropriate level of a financial
penalty set out 1in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D1;(2) the particular arrangements between the issuer and
the owner; (3) the likely impact of the penalty on the interests of investors
in a regulated covered bond;
and(4) the conduct
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FCA].4with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. 4 |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body seeks to promote and encourage, through its rules, practices and procedures, conduct in regulated activities which is consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1) and with any other codes of conduct, rules or principles relating
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies.444
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to:44(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FCA4 in the exercise of its functions;4(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FCA4 or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;4(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues
In the FCA view, this means that the reasonable investor must be satisfied that what he will get when he realises his investment is his proportionate share in the value of BC's underlying assets, less any dealing costs. In other words, that he is satisfied he will get net asset value. The investment condition focuses on the way the body corporate operates over time, and not by reference to particular issues of shares or securities (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section
For the 'satisfaction test' to be met, there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could form a view. He must be satisfied that the value of BC's property will be the basis of a calculation used for the whole, or substantially the whole, of his investment. The FCA considers that the circumstances, or combination of circumstances, in which a reasonable investor would be in a position to form this view include:(1) where the basis of net asset valuation
PERG 9.9.3 G (2)and PERG 9.9.3 G (3) refer to circumstances where the reasonable investor may be satisfied that he can realise his investment at net asset value because of arrangements made to ensure that the shares or securities trade at net asset value on a market. There may, for example, be cases of market dealing where the price of shares or securities will not depend on the market. An example is where BC or a third party undertakes to ensure that the market value reflects
However, where there is a market, the FCA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FCA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a
The fact that the definition must be applied to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general)) is also relevant here. So, for example, in a take-over situation the fact that a bidder may be willing to provide an exit route for an investment at net asset value will be irrelevant within the context of the definition. This is so even if an investor invests in particular shares or securities in the knowledge or expectation or in anticipation
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, a requirement in DTR 8 in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If a primary information provider or a person that is applying for approval as a primary information provider has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify a requirement in DTR 8 must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
A primary information provider or a person applying for approval as a primary information provider must consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if they:(1) are in doubt about how a requirement in DTR 8 applies in a particular situation; or(2) consider that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a requirement in DTR 8.
Where a requirement in DTR 8 refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions must be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency.Address for correspondenceNote: The FCA's address for correspondence in relation to DTR 8 is:Primary Market Monitoring
Enforcement and Market Oversight Division
The Financial Conduct Authority
12 Endeavour Square
London, E20 1JN
Primary Market MonitoringMarkets DivisionThe Financial Conduct Authority25 The North ColonnadeCanary
The Act (section
1L) requires the FCA to "maintain
arrangements for supervising authorised persons". Section 1K of the Act also requires the FCA to
provide general guidance about
how it intends to advance its operational objectives in discharging its general
functions in relation to different categories of authorised
person or regulated activity.
One purpose of this guidance is
to discharge the duties of the FCA set
out in sections 1L and 1K of the Act.
The FCA's approach to
The design of these arrangements
is shaped by the FCA'sstatutory objectives in relation to the
conduct supervision of financial services firms as
well as the prudential supervision of firms not
supervised by the PRA. These
objectives are set out in Chapter 1 of the Act.
The FCA has one strategic objective: ensuring that the relevant
markets function well. In discharging its general functions, the FCA must, so far as is reasonably possible,
act in a way which is compatible with
(1) In designing its approach to supervision,
the FCA has regard to the regulatory
principles set out in section 3B of the Act.
In particular, the FCA's regulatory
approach aims to focus and reinforce the responsibility of the senior management
of each firm (section 3B(1)(d)
of the Act) to ensure that it
takes reasonable care to organise and control the affairs of the firm responsibly and effectively, and develops
and maintains adequate risk management systems. It is the responsibility
(1) Notwithstanding CASS 1A.2.2 R, provided that the conditions in (2) are satisfied a firm may elect to be treated:(a) as a CASS medium firm, in the case of a firm that is classed by the application of the limits in CASS 1A.2.7 R as a CASS small firm; and (b) as a CASS large firm, in the case of a firm that is classed by the application of the limits in CASS 1A.2.7 R as a CASS medium firm.(2) The conditions to which (1) refers are that in either case:(a) the election is notified4
Once every calendar year a firm must notify to the FCA in writing the information specified in (1), (2) or (3) as applicable, and the information specified in (4), in each case no later than the day specified in (1) to (4):44(1) if it held client money or safe custody assets in the previous calendar year, the highest total amount of client money and the highest total value of safe custody assets held during the previous calendar year, notification of which must be made no later
4A firm's 'CASS firm type' and any change to it takes effect:(1) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R (1) or CASS 1A.2.9 R (2), on 1 February following the notification; or(2) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R (3), on the day it begins to hold client money or safe custody assets; or(3) if the firm makes an election under CASS 1A.2.5 R (1), and provided the conditions in CASS 1A.2.5 R (2) are satisfied, on the day the notification
A request by an issuer for the listing of its securities to be suspended or cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the issuer's name;(2) details of the securities to which it relates and the RIEs on which they are traded;(3) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(4) the date on which the issuer requests the suspension or cancellation to take effect;(5) for a suspension, the time the issuer wants the suspension to take effect;(6) if relevant,
Cancellations will only be specified to take effect when the market opens on a specified day. An issuer should therefore ensure that all accompanying information has been provided to the FCA well before the date on which the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect and at the very latest by 3 p.m. on the business day before it is to take effect. If the information is received after 3:00 p.m. on the day before the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect, it will normally
(1) If an issuer requests the FCA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities, it may withdraw its request at any time before the suspension or cancellation takes effect. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible, with an explanation of the reasons for the withdrawal.(2) Even if an issuer withdraws its request, the FCA may still suspend or cancel the listing of the securities if it considers it is necessary
4If an issuer requests the FCA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities under LR 5.3.1 R and the FCA agrees to do so, the notification given by the FCA to the issuer will include the following information: (1) the date on which the suspension or cancellation took effect or will take effect;(2) details of the suspension or cancellation; and (3) in relation to requests for suspension, details of the issuer's right to apply for the suspension of its listed securities to
SUP 10A.1.7 R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, in relation to an incoming Treaty firm and a UCITS qualifier, the Treaty and the UCITS Directive. It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. In relation to an incoming EEA firm exercising an EEA right, or an incoming Treaty firm exercising a Treaty right, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of the fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in
The descriptions of the following FCA controlled functions apply to an appointed representative of a firm, except an introducer appointed representative, as they apply to an FCA-authorised person:(1) the FCAgoverning functions, subject to SUP 10A.1.16 R and except for a tied agent of an EEAMiFID investment firm; and(2) the customer function other than in relation to acting in the capacity of an investment manager (see SUP 10A.10.7R (6)).
(1) SUP 10A.1.15 R is modified in relation to an appointed representative meeting the conditions in (2) so that only one of the following FCA governing functions:(a) director function; or(b) chief executive function; or(c) partner function; or(d) director of unincorporated association function;applies, as appropriate, to an individual within that appointed representative who will be required to be an FCA-approved person.(2) The conditions are that:(a) the scope of appointment
For a firm that is exempt from MiFID under article 2(1)(i) and whose only permission is bidding in emissions auctions, the only FCA controlled functions that apply to it are: (1) the FCA governing functions;(2) the money laundering reporting function; (3) the customer function; and(4) (where it has exercised an opt-in to CASS in accordance with CASS 1.4.9 R and is a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm) the CASS operational oversight function. This is because the FCA-approved
The Act does not provide a mechanism for appeals to the FCA2 from decisions by recognised bodies in relation to complaints. However, the FCA2 is required by section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) to have arrangements to investigate complaints (called relevant complaints in the Act) which it considers relevant to the question of whether a recognised body should remain recognised as such. This section describes aspects of the FCA's2 arrangements for investigating
Where the FCA2 receives a complaint about a recognised body, it will, in the first instance, seek to establish whether the complainant has approached the recognised body. Where this is not the case, the FCA2 will ask the complainant to complain to the recognised body. Where the complainant is dissatisfied with the handling of the complaint, but has not exhausted the recognised body's own internal complaints procedures (in the case of a complaint against a UK recognised body, including
When it is considering a relevant complaint, the FCA2 will make its own enquiries as appropriate with the recognised body, the complainant and other persons. It will usually ask the recognised body and the complainant to comment upon any preliminary or draft conclusions of its review and to confirm any matters of fact at that stage.2
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 2
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be a fit and properpersonto perform the [ relevant functions ] of a [ UK RIE ]. |
(2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the [FCA]4 may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the [UK RIE's] connection with any person. 4 |
2(3) The persons who effectively direct the business and operations of the [UK RIE] must be of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced to ensure the sound and prudent management and operation of the financial markets operated by it. |
2(4) The persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the [UK RIE], whether directly or indirectly must be suitable. |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to:4(1) the commitment shown by the UK recognised body'sgoverning body to satisfying the recognition requirements and to complying with other obligations in or under the Act;(2) its arrangements, policies and resources for fulfilling its obligations under the Act in relation to its activities as a UK recognised body;(3) the extent to
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to its connections with:4(1) any undertaking in the same group;(2) any owner or part-owner of the UK recognised body;(3) any person who has the right to appoint or remove members of the governing body or other key individuals;(4) any person who is able in practice to appoint or remove members of the governing body or other key individuals;(5) any person in accordance with whose instructions
In assessing whether its connection with any person could affect whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to:4(1) the reputation and standing of that other person, including his standing with any relevant UK or overseas regulator;(2) breaches of any law or regulation by that other person; (3) the roles of any of the UK recognised body's key individuals who have a position within organisations under the control or influence of that other
2In assessing whether the persons who effectively direct the business and operations of the UK RIE are of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced to ensure the sound and prudent management and operation of the financial markets operated by 3it, the FCA4 may have regard to the repute and experience of the UK RIE'skey individuals.4
A person wishing to be included on the list of primary information providers, must apply to the FCA for approval as a primary information provider by submitting the following to the FCA:(1) the name, registered office address, registered number and the names and addresses of the directors and company secretary of the person applying for approval and, where applicable, the corporate group to which the person belongs;(2) details of all the arrangements that it has established or
A person wishing to be included on the list of primary information providers must also submit to the FCA: (1) all additional documents, explanations and information that the FCA may reasonably require to decide whether to grant an application for approval as a primary information provider; and(2) verification of any documents, explanations and information provided to the FCA in such a manner as the FCA may reasonably require under (1).
When considering an application for approval as a primary information provider the FCA may carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators.[Note: The decision-making procedures that the FCA will follow when it considers whether to refuse an application for approval as a primary information provider are set out in DEPP.]
The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a primary information provider may provide at the time of granting a primary information provider's approval.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 89P of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
1The purpose of this section is to ensure that the appropriate regulator10 receives regular and comprehensive information about remuneration in a standard format to assist it to benchmark remuneration trends and practices and to collect remuneration information on high earners. It also takes account of the Capital Requirements (Amendment) Regulations 2012 (SI 2012/917) together with the European Banking Authority's Guidelines to article 22(3) and (5) of the Banking Consolidation
(1) A firm to which this rule applies must submit a High Earners Report to the appropriate regulator10 annually.10(2) The firm must submit that report to the appropriate regulator10 within four months of the end of the firm'saccounting reference date.10(3) A firm that is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated basis in respect of remuneration awarded in the last completed financial year to all high earners of the firm who mainly undertook
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.1
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FCA1notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
The purpose of REC 3.6.6 R is to ensure that the FCA1is informed of changes to agreements which specify the arrangements by which a UK recognised body will be governed or by which important decisions will be taken within that body. It is not intended to cover any agreement by which someone is appointed to be a key individual or which covers the terms and conditions of service in such an appointment.1
(1) 1This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an ACS is to be wound up or a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme is to be terminated otherwise than by the court as an unregistered company under the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (further rules regarding schemes of arrangement are found in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement)).(2) An ACS may be wound up under this section only if it is solvent. Under section 261W of the Act (Requests
This table belongs to COLL 7.4A.1G (5) (Explanation of COLL 7.4A)
Summary of the main steps in winding up an ACS or terminating a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme under FCArules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 261Q of the Act in a section 261Q case. R = Request to wind up the scheme under section 261W of the Act in a section 261W case. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period |
|||
Step number |
Explanation |
When |
|
1 |
Commence preparation of solvency statement |
7.4A.5R(2) |
|
2 |
Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary. |
7.4A.5R(4) and (5) |
|
3 |
In a section 261Q case: - the authorised contractual scheme manager receiving FCA approval; - or one month having passed after submitting the requisite notice under section 261Q of the Act without the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary having received from the FCA a warning notice under section 261R in respect of the proposal. In a section 261W case, the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary receives an indication from the FCA that, subject to there being no change in any relevant factor, on the conclusion of the winding up of the ACS, the FCA will agree to the request to wind up the ACS. |
Section 261Q of the Act (in a section 261Q case) 7.4A.4R(3)(c) to (e) (in a section 261W case) |
|
4 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders |
E |
7.4A.4R |
5 |
Depositary to realise and distribute proceeds |
ASAP after E |
7.4A.6R(1)-(5) |
6 |
Send annual long report of authorised contractual scheme manager, depositary and auditor to the FCA |
Within 4 months of FAP |
7.4A.9R(7) |
7 |
Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.4A.6R(6) |
(1) Upon the happening of any of the matters or dates referred to in (3), and subject to the requirement of (4) being satisfied, and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3(Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ACS or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme; (b) the depositary must cease to issue and cancelunits, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4A.6R
(1) Either before notice is given under section 261Q of the Act or before a request is made under section 261W of the Act in relation to the proposals referred to in COLL 7.4A.4R (4), the authorised contractual scheme manager must make a full inquiry into the ACS's (or, in the case of the termination of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme, the sub-fund's) affairs, business and property to establish whether the ACS or the sub-fund will be able to meet all its liabilities.(2) The
(1) Where COLL 7.4A.4R (3)(f) applies, the depositary must cancel all units in issue and wind up the ACS or terminate the sub-fund of the co-ownership scheme in accordance with the approved scheme of arrangement.(2) In any other case falling within COLL 7.4A.4 R:(a) once the ACS falls to be wound up or sub-fund terminated, the depositary must realise the scheme property;(b) after paying out or retaining adequate provision for all liabilities payable and for the costs of the winding
(1) For any annual or half-yearly accounting period which begins after commencement of the winding up or termination, the authorised contractual scheme manager is not required to prepare a short report (COLL 4.5.13R (Provision of short report)), provided that it has reasonably determined that the report is not required in the interests of the unitholders.(2) The authorised contractual scheme manager must consult the depositary before determining that a short report is not required
The articles in IFPRU 1.2.1 G do not always carry the same wording in describing what may be significant in terms of a firm's scope, nature, scale, internal organisation and complexity, but the articles have a general policy to restrict the application of those requirements to institutions which pose higher risks by virtue of broadly their size, types of business and complexity of activities. The FCA's policy is to apply an objective definition with pre-defined thresholds to determine
(1) This rule defines some of the terms used in IFPRU 1.2.3 R.(2) "Total assets" means the firm's total assets(a) set out in the most recent relevant report submitted to the FCA under SUP 16.12 (Integrated regulatory reporting); or (b) (where the firm carries out the assessment under this rule at any time after the date of its most recent report in (a)) as the firm would report to the FCA in accordance with the relevant report, as if the reporting period for that report ends on
The FCA may, on a case-by-case basis, require a firm which does not meet any of the conditions in IFPRU 1.2.3 R to comply with the rules and requirements that apply to a significant IFPRU firm if the FCA considers it appropriate to do so to meet its strategic objective or to advance one or more of its operational objectives under the Act.
(1) A firm may apply to the FCA under section 138A of the Act to waive any one or more of the conditions in IFPRU 1.2.3 R if it believes that one or more of the governance requirements in (2) that apply to a significant IFPRU firm may be disproportionate to it. In its application for such waiver, the FCA expects the firm to demonstrate, taking into account size, nature, scope and complexity of its activities in the context of it being a member of a group and the internal organisation
A company2 must forward to the FCA, for publication through the document viewing facility, two copies of:2(1) all circulars, notices, reports or other documents to which the listingrules apply, at the same time as any such documents are issued; and(2) all resolutions passed by the company other than resolutions concerning ordinary business at an annual general meeting, as soon as possible after the relevant general meeting.