Related provisions for LR 10.1.5

381 - 400 of 754 items.

Search Term(s)

Filter by Topics

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

SUP 14.6.3ARRP
4An EEA firm that has exercised an EEA right under the auction regulation to establish a branch in the United Kingdom must notify the FCA7 by email to 7emissionstrading@fca.org.uk7 when it ceases to carry on regulated activities through a branch passport in the United Kingdom or whenever possible thereafter.
SUP 14.6.3BGRP
4 The sole purpose of the notification in SUP 14.6.3A R is to inform the FCA7 that it may discontinue its supervision of the UK branch of the incoming EEA firm's compliance with the applicable provisions. The applicable provisions that apply to that branch are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).7
SUP 14.6.11GRP
Section 36 of the Act states that a UCITS qualifier may ask the FCA7 to give a direction cancelling its authorisation under paragraph 1(1) of Schedule 5 to the Act. UCITS qualifiers should also refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G (Revocation of recognition of overseas schemes (section 279)3).1733
REC 3.18.1GRP
(1) The purpose of REC 3.18 is to enable the FCA4 to monitor changes in the types of member admitted by UK recognised bodies and to ensure that the FCA4has notice of foreign jurisdictions in which the members of UK recognised bodies are based. UK recognised bodies may admit persons who are not authorised persons or persons who are not located in the United Kingdom, provided that the recognition requirements2or (for RAPs) RAP recognition requirements continue to be met.44(2) REC
REC 3.18.2RRP
Where a UK recognised body admits a member who is not an authorised person of a type of which, immediately before that time, that UK recognised body had not admitted to membership, it must immediately give the FCA4notice of that event, and:4(1) a description of the type of person whom it is admitting to membership; 2(2) (in relation to a UK RIE ) 2particulars of its reasons for considering that, in admitting that type of person to membership, it is able to continue to satisfy
REC 3.18.3RRP
Where a UK recognised body admits for the first time a member whose head or registered office is in a jurisdiction from which that UK recognised body has not previously admitted members, it must immediately give the FCA4notice of that event, and:4(1) the name of that jurisdiction; (2) the name of any regulatory authority in that jurisdiction which regulates that member in respect of activities relating to specified investments or (for an RAP) relating to emissions auction products;
LR 15.4.8RRP
A closed-ended investment fund must obtain the prior approval of its shareholders1 to any material change to its published investment policy. 1
PERG 9.10.4GRP
The restrictions mentioned in PERG 9.10.3 G are subject to a number of exemptions. For example, the controls in sections 238 and 240 do not apply to financial promotions about certain kinds of collective investment scheme. These are:(1) open-ended investment companies formed in Great Britain and authorised by the FCA under the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001;(2) authorised unit trust schemes;6(2A) authorised contractual schemes; and6(3) collective investment schemes
PERG 9.10.6GRP
The FCA has also made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorised persons to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an open-ended investment company that is an unregulated collective investment scheme (that is, one that does not fall within PERG 9.10.4 G). The circumstances in which such a communication or approval is allowed are explained in COBS 4.12.4 R535
PERG 9.10.10GRP
A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted by an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself. But where the open-ended investment company is incorporated outside the United Kingdom, it will
GENPRU 3.2.6GRP
The appropriate regulator believes that it will only be right to adopt the option in GENPRU 3.2.5 G in response to very unusual group structures.
GENPRU 3.2.9RRP
If the Part 4A permission of a firm contains a requirement obliging it to comply with this rule with respect to a third-country banking and investment group of which it is a member, it must comply, with respect to that third-country banking and investment group, with the rules in Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 2, as adjusted by Part 3 of that annex.
CASS 10.1.2GRP
The purpose of the CASS resolution pack is to ensure that a firm maintains and is able to retrieve information that would, in the event of its insolvency, assist an insolvency practitioner in achieving a timely return of client money and safe custody assets held by the firm to that firm'sclients.
CASS 10.1.7RRP
In relation to each document in a firm'sCASS resolution pack a firm must:(1) put in place adequate arrangements to ensure that an administrator, receiver, trustee, liquidator or analogous officer appointed in respect of it or any material part of its property is able to retrieve each document as soon as practicable and in any event within 48 hours of that officer’s appointment; and(2) ensure that it is able to retrieve each document as soon as practicable, and in any event within
CASS 10.1.16RRP
A firm must notify the FCA in writing immediately if it has not complied with, or is unable to comply with, CASS 10.1.3 R.
COBS 12.2.11GRP
The FCA would expect a firm'sconflicts of interest policy to provide for investment research to be published or distributed to its clients in an appropriate manner. For example, the FCA considers it will be:(1) appropriate for a firm to take reasonable steps to ensure that its investment research is published or distributed only through its usual distribution channels; and(2) inappropriate for an employee (whether or not a financial analyst) to communicate the substance of any
COBS 12.2.12GRP
The FCA would expect a firm to consider whether or not other business activities of the firm could create the reasonable perception that its investment research may not be an impartial analysis of the market in, or the value or prospects of, a financial instrument. A firm would therefore be expected to consider whether its conflicts of interest policy should contain any restrictions on the timing of the publication of investment research. For example, a firm might consider whether
COBS 12.2.13GRP
The FCA considers that the significant conflicts of interest which could arise are likely to mean it is inappropriate for a financial analyst or other relevant person to prepare investment research which is intended firstly for internal use for the firm's own advantage, and then for later publication to its clients (in circumstances in which it might reasonably be expected to have a material influence on its clients' investment decisions).
FEES 7.2.2RRP
The CFEB levy is calculated as follows:(1) identify each of the activity groups set out in Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 1 that apply to the business of the firm for the relevant period (for this purpose, the activity groups are defined in accordance with Part 1 of and the activity groups under are defined in accordance with Part 1 of that Annex);FEES 4 Annex 1A);66(2) for each of those activity groups, calculate the amount payable in the way set out in FEES 7.2.3 R;(3) add the amounts
FEES 7.2.4RRP
For the purposes of FEES 7.2.3 R:(1) a firm may apply the relevant tariff bases and rates to its non-UK business, as well as to its UK business, if:(a) it has reasonable grounds for believing that the costs of identifying the firm'sUK business separately from its non-UK business in the way described in Part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 1A6 and Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 111 are disproportionate to the difference in fees payable; and (b) it notifies the FCA in writing at the same time as it provides
FEES 7.2.9RRP

Table of rules in FEES 4that also apply to FEES 7 to the extent that in FEES 4 they apply to fees payable to the FCA6

FEES 4 rules incorporated into FEES 7

Description

FEES 4.2.4 R

Method of payment

FEES 4.2.7B R

Calculation of periodic fee and tariff base for a firm's second financial year

FEES 4.2.8 R

How FEES 4.2.7 R applies in relation to an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm

FEES 4.2.10 R

Extension of time

FEES 4.2.11 R (first entry only)

Due date and changes in permission for periodic fees

FEES 4.3.7 R

Groups of firms

FEES 4.3.13 R

Firms applying to cancel or vary permission before start of period

FEES 4.3.15 R

Firms acquiring businesses from other firms

FEES 4.4.1 R to FEES 4.4.6 R

Information on which fees are calculated
DTR 6.3.8RRP
Upon request, an issuer or other person must be able to communicate to the FCA, in relation to any disclosure of regulated information:(1) the name of the person who communicated the regulated information to the RIS;(2) the security validation details;(3) the time and date on which the regulated information was communicated to the RIS;(4) the medium in which the regulated information was communicated; and(5) details of any embargo placed by the issuer on the regulated information,
TC 2.1.10AGRP
16TC Appendix 5G sets out:(1) the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and(2) the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4E.
TC 2.1.30GRP
The Glossary definition of accredited body contains a list of bodies recognised by the FCA for the purpose of providing the independent verification required under TC 2.1.27 R. Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including a body in the list is set out inTC Appendix 6G and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.1717
TC 2.1.31RRP
17A firm must notify the FCA as soon as reasonably practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following events has occurred or may have occurred in relation to any of its retail investment advisers, and the event is significant:(1) a retail investment adviser, who has been assessed as competent for the purposes of TC 2.1.1 R, is no longer considered competent for those purposes; (2) a retail investment adviser has failed to
TC 2.1.33GRP
17The Retail Investment Adviser Competence Notification Form approved by the FCA for notifications under TC 2.1.31 R may be found at the FCA's website www.fca.org.uk/firms/being-regulated/approved/notification-of-competence.
COLL 6.5.3RRP
(1) The directors (or director) of an ICVC must take all practicable steps to ensure the ICVC has at all times as its ACD a person who is qualified to act as ACD.(2) If the ICVC ceases to have any director, the depositary must exercise its powers, under the OEIC Regulations, to appoint a person to be an ACD of the ICVC.(3) For an ICVC that holds annual general meetings under the OEIC Regulations, the1 appointment of an ACD (other than the first ACD), under (1) or (2), must terminate
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
LR 18.2.6GRP
The FCA may modify LR 18.2.5 R to allow partly paid securities if it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and proper basis. [Note: Articles 46 and 54 CARD]
LR 18.2.7GRP
The FCA may, in exceptional circumstances, modify or dispense with LR 18.2.5 R where the issuer has the power to disapprove the transfer of securities if the FCA is satisfied that this power would not disturb the market in those securities.
LR 18.2.9GRP
The FCA may modify LR 18.2.8 R to accept a percentage lower than 25% if it considers that the market will operate properly with a lower percentage in view of the large number of certificates of the same class and the extent of their distribution to the public. For that purpose, the FCA may take into account certificates of the same class that are held (even though they are not listed) in states that are not EEA States. 1[Note: Article 48 CARD]
SYSC 5.1.5AGRP
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification7 requirement in TC to pass a relevant examination from the list of recommended examinations maintained by the Financial Skills Partnership7, the appropriate regulator will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.777
PERG 8.11.4GRP
In a few instances, the requirements of a particular exemption may affect the practicality of its being combined with another. These are article 12 (Communications to overseas recipients) and article 52 (Common interest group of a company). Article 12, for example, requires that financial promotions must be made to or directed only at overseas persons and certain persons in the United Kingdom. This presents no difficulty with article 12 being combined with other exemptions in
PERG 8.11.5GRP
A number of exemptions require that a financial promotion must be accompanied by certain indications. Article 9 of the Financial Promotion Order states that indications must be presented in a way that can be easily understood and in such manner as is ‘best calculated’ to bring the matter to the recipient’s attention. In the FCA's opinion, the expression ‘best calculated’ should be construed in a sensible manner. It does not, for instance, demand that the indication be presented
PERG 8.11.6GRP
Some exemptions are based on the communicator believing on reasonable grounds that the recipient meets certain conditions. For example, articles 19(1)(a), 44, 47 and 49. What are reasonable grounds for these purposes will be a matter for the courts to decide. In the FCA's view, it would be reasonable for a communicator to rely on a statement made by a potential recipient that he satisfies relevant conditions. This is provided that there is no reason to doubt the accuracy of the
COLL 12.3.4RRP
(1) An EEA UCITS management company which applies to manage a UCITS scheme under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act must provide the FCA with the following documents:(a) the written agreement that has been entered into with the depositary of the scheme, as referred to in COLL 6.6.4 R (6) (General duties of the depositary);(b) information on any delegation arrangements it has made regarding the functions of investment management and administration, as referred to in Annex
COLL 12.3.5RRP
An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must comply with the rules of the FCAHandbook which relate to the constitution and functioning of the UCITS scheme (the fund application rules), as follows:(1) the setting up and authorisation of the UCITS scheme (COLL 1 (Introduction), COLL 2 (Authorised fund applications), COLL 3 (Constitution), COLL 6.5 (Appointment and replacement of the authorised fund manager and the depositary), COLL 6.6 (Powers and duties of
COLL 12.3.6RRP
(1) An EEA UCITS management company that manages a UCITS scheme must establish appropriate procedures and arrangements to make information available at the request of the public or the FCA.(2) The EEA UCITS management company must ensure that the procedures and arrangements it establishes in accordance with (1), enable the FCA to obtain any information it requests directly from the management company.[Note: article 15 second paragraph and article 21(2) third paragraph, of the
SUP 4.3.8GRP
The appropriate regulator is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under this section1 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the appropriate regulator's rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.1
SUP 4.3.11RRP
A firm must not appoint under SUP 4.3.1 R1 or an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 11010
SUP 4.3.12GRP
If it appears to the FCA or PRA10 that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it have the power to and10 may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A respectively10 of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA10 website (http://www.fca.org.uk10).10155110101010
PERG 6.6.2GRP
The 'assumption of risk' by the provider is an important descriptive feature of all contracts of insurance. The 'assumption of risk' has the meaning in (1) and (3), derived from the case law in (2) and (4) below. The application of the 'assumption of risk' concept is illustrated in PERG 6.7.2 G (Example 2: disaster recovery business).(1) Case law establishes that the provider's obligation under a contract of insurance is an enforceable obligation to respond (usually, by providing
PERG 6.6.3GRP
Contracts, under which the amount and timing of the payments made by the recipient make it reasonable to conclude that there is a genuine pre-payment for services to be rendered in response to a future contingency, are unlikely to be regarded as insurance. In general, the FCA expects that this requirement will be satisfied where there is a commercially reasonable and objectively justifiable relationship between the amount of the payment and the cost of providing the contract
PERG 6.6.7GRP
Under most commercial contracts with a customer, a provider will assume more than one obligation. Some of these may be insurance obligations, others may not. The FCA will apply the principles in PERG 6.5.4 G, in the way described in (1) to (3) to determine whether the contract is a contract of insurance.(1) If a provider undertakes an identifiable and distinct obligation that is, in substance an insurance obligation as described in PERG 6.5.4 G, then, other things being equal,
MCOB 5.9.1RRP
(1) 1A firm must, as soon as a customer expresses an interest in becoming a SRB agreement seller, ensure that the 2disclosures and warnings set out in (1A) are 2made to the customer2, both orally and confirmed in writing, and he is given an adequate opportunity to consider them. The firm must not demand or accept any fees, charges or other sums from the customer, or undertake any action that commits the customer in any way to entering into a specific agreement, until:2222(a) 2the
MCOB 5.9.3RRP
(1) A SRB intermediary2must ensure that, on first making contact with a prospective SRB agreement seller, whether or not he is the firm'scustomer, who is proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement with an unauthorised SRB agreement provider, it provides him with the written warning in (2) before he enters into any such agreement.2(2) The warning in (1) is that:(a) the agreement provider is not authorised or regulated by the FCA, and that key protections under
MCOB 5.9.5GRP
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
COLL 12.4.1RRP
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application
COLL 12.4.4RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in the Host State must ensure that:(a) its instrument constituting the scheme, its prospectus and, where appropriate, its latest annual report and any subsequent half-yearly report; and(b) its key investor information document;together with their translations (wherever necessary), are kept up to date.(2) The authorised fund manager must notify any amendments to the documents referred to in (1) to
COLL 12.4.8RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FCA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the