Related provisions for SUP 9.2.4
181 - 200 of 754 items.
(1) When deciding whether to take enforcement
action under Part 7 of the RCB Regulations,
and what form that enforcement action should take, the FCA will consider all relevant factors,
including:(a) the relevant factors on decisions to take action set out in DEPP 6.2.1 G;(b) whether any contractual or other arrangements agreed between the
parties can be used effectively to address any perceived failure under the RCB Regulations; and(c) the interests of investors in the relevant
When considering whether to impose
a financial penalty, the amount of penalty, and whether to impose the penalty
on the issuer or the owner, the FCA will have regard, where relevant,1 to:(1) the statement on determining the appropriate level of a financial
penalty set out 1in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D1;(2) the particular arrangements between the issuer and
the owner; (3) the likely impact of the penalty on the interests of investors
in a regulated covered bond;
and(4) the conduct
(1) The removal of the exclusion for groups and joint enterprises in article 69 of the Regulated Activities Order (Groups and joint enterprises) may have implications for a company providing services for:(a) other members of its group; or(b) other participants in a joint enterprise of which it is a participant.(2) Such companies might typically provide risk or treasury management or administration services which may include regulated activities relating to a contract of insurance.
Article 67 excludes from the activities of dealing as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance and advising on investments, any activity which:(1) is carried on in the course of carrying on any profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) may
Article 67 may also apply to activities relating to assignments of insurance policies, as, in the FCA's view, article 2.3 of the IMD applies essentially to the creation of new contracts of insurance and not the assignment of rights under existing policies. As such, where a solicitor or licensed conveyancer arranges an assignment of a contract of insurance, the exclusion in article 67 remains of potential application. For similar reasons, trustees advising on or arranging assignments
Article 72B (see also PERG 5.3.7 G (Connected contracts of insurance)) may be of relevance to persons who supply non-motor goods or provide services related to travel in the course of carrying on a profession or business which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities. In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business
In the FCA's view, the liability risks referred to in PERG 5.11.13G (5) cover risks in relation to liabilities that the policyholder might have to others (that is, third party claims). Many policies will provide this sort of cover and so fall outside the scope of the exclusion. For example, a policy that covers the cost of unauthorised calls made when a mobile telephone is stolen includes 'liability risks' and would not be a 'connected contract of insurance'. By contrast, travel
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FCA].4with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. 4 |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body seeks to promote and encourage, through its rules, practices and procedures, conduct in regulated activities which is consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1) and with any other codes of conduct, rules or principles relating
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies.444
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to:44(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FCA4 in the exercise of its functions;4(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FCA4 or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;4(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues
In the FCA view, this means that the reasonable investor must be satisfied that what he will get when he realises his investment is his proportionate share in the value of BC's underlying assets, less any dealing costs. In other words, that he is satisfied he will get net asset value. The investment condition focuses on the way the body corporate operates over time, and not by reference to particular issues of shares or securities (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section
For the 'satisfaction test' to be met, there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could form a view. He must be satisfied that the value of BC's property will be the basis of a calculation used for the whole, or substantially the whole, of his investment. The FCA considers that the circumstances, or combination of circumstances, in which a reasonable investor would be in a position to form this view include:(1) where the basis of net asset valuation
PERG 9.9.3 G (2)and PERG 9.9.3 G (3) refer to circumstances where the reasonable investor may be satisfied that he can realise his investment at net asset value because of arrangements made to ensure that the shares or securities trade at net asset value on a market. There may, for example, be cases of market dealing where the price of shares or securities will not depend on the market. An example is where BC or a third party undertakes to ensure that the market value reflects
However, where there is a market, the FCA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FCA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a
The fact that the definition must be applied to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general)) is also relevant here. So, for example, in a take-over situation the fact that a bidder may be willing to provide an exit route for an investment at net asset value will be irrelevant within the context of the definition. This is so even if an investor invests in particular shares or securities in the knowledge or expectation or in anticipation
The Act (section
1L) requires the FCA to "maintain
arrangements for supervising authorised persons". Section 1K of the Act also requires the FCA to
provide general guidance about
how it intends to advance its operational objectives in discharging its general
functions in relation to different categories of authorised
person or regulated activity.
One purpose of this guidance is
to discharge the duties of the FCA set
out in sections 1L and 1K of the Act.
The FCA's approach to
The design of these arrangements
is shaped by the FCA'sstatutory objectives in relation to the
conduct supervision of financial services firms as
well as the prudential supervision of firms not
supervised by the PRA. These
objectives are set out in Chapter 1 of the Act.
The FCA has one strategic objective: ensuring that the relevant
markets function well. In discharging its general functions, the FCA must, so far as is reasonably possible,
act in a way which is compatible with
(1) In designing its approach to supervision,
the FCA has regard to the regulatory
principles set out in section 3B of the Act.
In particular, the FCA's regulatory
approach aims to focus and reinforce the responsibility of the senior management
of each firm (section 3B(1)(d)
of the Act) to ensure that it
takes reasonable care to organise and control the affairs of the firm responsibly and effectively, and develops
and maintains adequate risk management systems. It is the responsibility
(1) Notwithstanding CASS 1A.2.2 R, provided that the conditions in (2) are satisfied a firm may elect to be treated:(a) as a CASS medium firm, in the case of a firm that is classed by the application of the limits in CASS 1A.2.7 R as a CASS small firm; and (b) as a CASS large firm, in the case of a firm that is classed by the application of the limits in CASS 1A.2.7 R as a CASS medium firm.(2) The conditions to which (1) refers are that in either case:(a) the election is notified4
Once every calendar year a firm must notify to the FCA in writing the information specified in (1), (2) or (3) as applicable, and the information specified in (4), in each case no later than the day specified in (1) to (4):44(1) if it held client money or safe custody assets in the previous calendar year, the highest total amount of client money and the highest total value of safe custody assets held during the previous calendar year, notification of which must be made no later
4A firm's 'CASS firm type' and any change to it takes effect:(1) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R (1) or CASS 1A.2.9 R (2), on 1 February following the notification; or(2) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R (3), on the day it begins to hold client money or safe custody assets; or(3) if the firm makes an election under CASS 1A.2.5 R (1), and provided the conditions in CASS 1A.2.5 R (2) are satisfied, on the day the notification
A request by an issuer for the listing of its securities to be suspended or cancelled must be in writing and must include:(1) the issuer's name;(2) details of the securities to which it relates and the RIEs on which they are traded;(3) a clear explanation of the background and reasons for the request;(4) the date on which the issuer requests the suspension or cancellation to take effect;(5) for a suspension, the time the issuer wants the suspension to take effect;(6) if relevant,
Cancellations will only be specified to take effect when the market opens on a specified day. An issuer should therefore ensure that all accompanying information has been provided to the FCA well before the date on which the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect and at the very latest by 3 p.m. on the business day before it is to take effect. If the information is received after 3:00 p.m. on the day before the issuer wishes the cancellation to take effect, it will normally
(1) If an issuer requests the FCA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities, it may withdraw its request at any time before the suspension or cancellation takes effect. The withdrawal request should initially be made by telephone and then confirmed in writing as soon as possible, with an explanation of the reasons for the withdrawal.(2) Even if an issuer withdraws its request, the FCA may still suspend or cancel the listing of the securities if it considers it is necessary
4If an issuer requests the FCA to suspend or cancel the listing of its securities under LR 5.3.1 R and the FCA agrees to do so, the notification given by the FCA to the issuer will include the following information: (1) the date on which the suspension or cancellation took effect or will take effect;(2) details of the suspension or cancellation; and (3) in relation to requests for suspension, details of the issuer's right to apply for the suspension of its listed securities to
SUP 10A.1.7 R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, in relation to an incoming Treaty firm and a UCITS qualifier, the Treaty and the UCITS Directive. It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. In relation to an incoming EEA firm exercising an EEA right, or an incoming Treaty firm exercising a Treaty right, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of the fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in
The descriptions of the following FCA controlled functions apply to an appointed representative of a firm, except an introducer appointed representative, as they apply to an FCA-authorised person:(1) the FCAgoverning functions, subject to SUP 10A.1.16 R and except for a tied agent of an EEAMiFID investment firm; and(2) the customer function other than in relation to acting in the capacity of an investment manager (see SUP 10A.10.7R (6)).
(1) SUP 10A.1.15 R is modified in relation to an appointed representative meeting the conditions in (2) so that only one of the following FCA governing functions:(a) director function; or(b) chief executive function; or(c) partner function; or(d) director of unincorporated association function;applies, as appropriate, to an individual within that appointed representative who will be required to be an FCA-approved person.(2) The conditions are that:(a) the scope of appointment
For a firm that is exempt from MiFID under article 2(1)(i) and whose only permission is bidding in emissions auctions, the only FCA controlled functions that apply to it are: (1) the FCA governing functions;(2) the money laundering reporting function; (3) the customer function; and(4) (where it has exercised an opt-in to CASS in accordance with CASS 1.4.9 R and is a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm) the CASS operational oversight function. This is because the FCA-approved
The FCA expects a firm to have a validation process that includes the following:(1) standards of objectivity, accuracy, stability and conservatism that it designs its ratings systems to meet and processes that establish whether its rating systems meet those standards;(2) standards of accuracy of calibration (ie, whether outcomes are consistent with estimates) and discriminative power (ie, the ability to rank-order risk) that it designs its rating systems to meet and processes
The FCA expects a firm to be able to explain the performance of its rating systems against its chosen measure (or measures) of discriminative power. In making this comparison, a firm should rely primarily on actual historic default experience where this is available. In particular, the FCA expects a firm to be able to explain the extent of any potential inaccuracy in these measures, caused, in particular, by small sample size and the potential for divergence in the future, whether
In the case of a portfolio for which there is insufficient default experience to provide any confidence in statistical measures of discriminative power, the FCA expects a firm to use other methods. For example, analysis of whether the firm's rating systems and an external measurement approach (eg, external ratings) rank common obligors in broadly similar ways. The FCA expects a firm to be able to explain the methodology it uses and the rationale for its use.
The articles in IFPRU 1.2.1 G do not always carry the same wording in describing what may be significant in terms of a firm's scope, nature, scale, internal organisation and complexity, but the articles have a general policy to restrict the application of those requirements to institutions which pose higher risks by virtue of broadly their size, types of business and complexity of activities. The FCA's policy is to apply an objective definition with pre-defined thresholds to determine
(1) This rule defines some of the terms used in IFPRU 1.2.3 R.(2) "Total assets" means the firm's total assets(a) set out in the most recent relevant report submitted to the FCA under SUP 16.12 (Integrated regulatory reporting); or (b) (where the firm carries out the assessment under this rule at any time after the date of its most recent report in (a)) as the firm would report to the FCA in accordance with the relevant report, as if the reporting period for that report ends on
The FCA may, on a case-by-case basis, require a firm which does not meet any of the conditions in IFPRU 1.2.3 R to comply with the rules and requirements that apply to a significant IFPRU firm if the FCA considers it appropriate to do so to meet its strategic objective or to advance one or more of its operational objectives under the Act.
(1) A firm may apply to the FCA under section 138A of the Act to waive any one or more of the conditions in IFPRU 1.2.3 R if it believes that one or more of the governance requirements in (2) that apply to a significant IFPRU firm may be disproportionate to it. In its application for such waiver, the FCA expects the firm to demonstrate, taking into account size, nature, scope and complexity of its activities in the context of it being a member of a group and the internal organisation
The Act does not provide a mechanism for appeals to the FCA2 from decisions by recognised bodies in relation to complaints. However, the FCA2 is required by section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) to have arrangements to investigate complaints (called relevant complaints in the Act) which it considers relevant to the question of whether a recognised body should remain recognised as such. This section describes aspects of the FCA's2 arrangements for investigating
Where the FCA2 receives a complaint about a recognised body, it will, in the first instance, seek to establish whether the complainant has approached the recognised body. Where this is not the case, the FCA2 will ask the complainant to complain to the recognised body. Where the complainant is dissatisfied with the handling of the complaint, but has not exhausted the recognised body's own internal complaints procedures (in the case of a complaint against a UK recognised body, including
When it is considering a relevant complaint, the FCA2 will make its own enquiries as appropriate with the recognised body, the complainant and other persons. It will usually ask the recognised body and the complainant to comment upon any preliminary or draft conclusions of its review and to confirm any matters of fact at that stage.2
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 2
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be a fit and properpersonto perform the [ relevant functions ] of a [ UK RIE ]. |
(2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the [FCA]4 may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the [UK RIE's] connection with any person. 4 |
2(3) The persons who effectively direct the business and operations of the [UK RIE] must be of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced to ensure the sound and prudent management and operation of the financial markets operated by it. |
2(4) The persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the [UK RIE], whether directly or indirectly must be suitable. |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to:4(1) the commitment shown by the UK recognised body'sgoverning body to satisfying the recognition requirements and to complying with other obligations in or under the Act;(2) its arrangements, policies and resources for fulfilling its obligations under the Act in relation to its activities as a UK recognised body;(3) the extent to
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to its connections with:4(1) any undertaking in the same group;(2) any owner or part-owner of the UK recognised body;(3) any person who has the right to appoint or remove members of the governing body or other key individuals;(4) any person who is able in practice to appoint or remove members of the governing body or other key individuals;(5) any person in accordance with whose instructions
In assessing whether its connection with any person could affect whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to:4(1) the reputation and standing of that other person, including his standing with any relevant UK or overseas regulator;(2) breaches of any law or regulation by that other person; (3) the roles of any of the UK recognised body's key individuals who have a position within organisations under the control or influence of that other
2In assessing whether the persons who effectively direct the business and operations of the UK RIE are of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced to ensure the sound and prudent management and operation of the financial markets operated by 3it, the FCA4 may have regard to the repute and experience of the UK RIE'skey individuals.4
1The purpose of this section is to ensure that the appropriate regulator10 receives regular and comprehensive information about remuneration in a standard format to assist it to benchmark remuneration trends and practices and to collect remuneration information on high earners. It also takes account of the Capital Requirements (Amendment) Regulations 2012 (SI 2012/917) together with the European Banking Authority's Guidelines to article 22(3) and (5) of the Banking Consolidation
(1) A firm to which this rule applies must submit a High Earners Report to the appropriate regulator10 annually.10(2) The firm must submit that report to the appropriate regulator10 within four months of the end of the firm'saccounting reference date.10(3) A firm that is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated basis in respect of remuneration awarded in the last completed financial year to all high earners of the firm who mainly undertook
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.1
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FCA1notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
The purpose of REC 3.6.6 R is to ensure that the FCA1is informed of changes to agreements which specify the arrangements by which a UK recognised body will be governed or by which important decisions will be taken within that body. It is not intended to cover any agreement by which someone is appointed to be a key individual or which covers the terms and conditions of service in such an appointment.1
(1) 1This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an ACS is to be wound up or a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme is to be terminated otherwise than by the court as an unregistered company under the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (further rules regarding schemes of arrangement are found in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement)).(2) An ACS may be wound up under this section only if it is solvent. Under section 261W of the Act (Requests
This table belongs to COLL 7.4A.1G (5) (Explanation of COLL 7.4A)
Summary of the main steps in winding up an ACS or terminating a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme under FCArules Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 261Q of the Act in a section 261Q case. R = Request to wind up the scheme under section 261W of the Act in a section 261W case. E = commencement of winding up or termination W/U = winding up FAP = final accounting period |
|||
Step number |
Explanation |
When |
|
1 |
Commence preparation of solvency statement |
7.4A.5R(2) |
|
2 |
Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary. |
7.4A.5R(4) and (5) |
|
3 |
In a section 261Q case: - the authorised contractual scheme manager receiving FCA approval; - or one month having passed after submitting the requisite notice under section 261Q of the Act without the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary having received from the FCA a warning notice under section 261R in respect of the proposal. In a section 261W case, the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary receives an indication from the FCA that, subject to there being no change in any relevant factor, on the conclusion of the winding up of the ACS, the FCA will agree to the request to wind up the ACS. |
Section 261Q of the Act (in a section 261Q case) 7.4A.4R(3)(c) to (e) (in a section 261W case) |
|
4 |
Normal business ceases; notify unitholders |
E |
7.4A.4R |
5 |
Depositary to realise and distribute proceeds |
ASAP after E |
7.4A.6R(1)-(5) |
6 |
Send annual long report of authorised contractual scheme manager, depositary and auditor to the FCA |
Within 4 months of FAP |
7.4A.9R(7) |
7 |
Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order |
On completion of W/U |
7.4A.6R(6) |
(1) Upon the happening of any of the matters or dates referred to in (3), and subject to the requirement of (4) being satisfied, and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3(Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ACS or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme; (b) the depositary must cease to issue and cancelunits, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4A.6R
(1) Either before notice is given under section 261Q of the Act or before a request is made under section 261W of the Act in relation to the proposals referred to in COLL 7.4A.4R (4), the authorised contractual scheme manager must make a full inquiry into the ACS's (or, in the case of the termination of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme, the sub-fund's) affairs, business and property to establish whether the ACS or the sub-fund will be able to meet all its liabilities.(2) The
(1) Where COLL 7.4A.4R (3)(f) applies, the depositary must cancel all units in issue and wind up the ACS or terminate the sub-fund of the co-ownership scheme in accordance with the approved scheme of arrangement.(2) In any other case falling within COLL 7.4A.4 R:(a) once the ACS falls to be wound up or sub-fund terminated, the depositary must realise the scheme property;(b) after paying out or retaining adequate provision for all liabilities payable and for the costs of the winding
(1) For any annual or half-yearly accounting period which begins after commencement of the winding up or termination, the authorised contractual scheme manager is not required to prepare a short report (COLL 4.5.13R (Provision of short report)), provided that it has reasonably determined that the report is not required in the interests of the unitholders.(2) The authorised contractual scheme manager must consult the depositary before determining that a short report is not required
Standing data is used by the appropriate regulator20:20(1) to ensure that a firm is presented with the correct regulatory return when it seeks to report electronically;(2) in order to communicate with a firm;(3) as the basis for some sections of the Financial Services Register;20 and 20(4) in order to carry out thematic analysis across sectors and groups of firms.
(1) Within 30 business days of its accounting reference date, a firm must check the accuracy of its standing data through the relevant section of the appropriate regulator's20 website.20(2) [paragraph suspended by FSA 2004/79]5(3) If any standing data is incorrect, the firm must submit5 the corrected standing data to the appropriate regulator,205 using the appropriate form set out in SUP 15 Ann 3 and in accordance with SUP 16.10.4A R.55
(1) 5A firm other than a credit union must submit any corrected standing data under SUP 16.10.4R (3) online at the appropriate regulator's website20 using the ONAsystem.2020(2) A credit union must submit any corrected standing data under SUP 16.10.4R (3) to static.data@fca.org.uk or via post or hand delivery to the FCA marked for the attention of the 'Static Data team'20.2020(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit corrected standing data online under (1), if the FCA's20 information
5If the FCA's20 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA20 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 16.3.9 R20 should be used.202020
The standing data is made available to the firm when the firm logs into the appropriate section of the appropriate regulator's20 website. The firm should check the standing data and send any corrections to the appropriate regulator20. The appropriate regulator's20 preferred method of receiving corrections to standing data is by the online forms available at the appropriate regulator's20 website.220202020
A company2 must forward to the FCA, for publication through the document viewing facility, two copies of:2(1) all circulars, notices, reports or other documents to which the listingrules apply, at the same time as any such documents are issued; and(2) all resolutions passed by the company other than resolutions concerning ordinary business at an annual general meeting, as soon as possible after the relevant general meeting.
In determining whether a UK recognised body has appropriate procedures for it to make rules, for keeping its rules under review and for amending them, the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for taking decisions about making and amending rules in the UK recognised body, including the level at which the decisions are taken and any provision for the delegation of decisions by the governing body;(2) the arrangements made for determining whether or not it is appropriate
(1) In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures include procedures for consulting users of its facilities in appropriate cases, the FCA3 may have regard to whether those procedures include provision for consulting users of those facilities before changes are made to any rules relating to its regulatory functions. 3(2) In the FCA's3 view, a UK recognised body's procedures may not need to contain provision for consulting users of its facilities before making minor changes
(1) In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures for consulting members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the FCA3 may have regard to the range of persons to be consulted by the UK recognised body under those procedures. 3(2) In the FCA's3 view, consultation with a smaller range of persons may be appropriate where limited, technical changes to a UK recognised body's rules are proposed.3(3) In the FCA's3 view, a UK recognised body's procedures may include
In determining whether a UK recognised body's procedures for consulting members and other users of its facilities are appropriate, the FCA3 may have regard to the extent to which the procedures include:3(1) informal discussions at an early stage with users of its facilities or appropriate representative bodies; (2) publication to users of its facilities of a formal consultation paper which includes clearly expressed reasons for the proposed changes and an appropriately detailed
1Under
section 312B of the Act, the FCA5 may
prohibit an EEA market operator from
making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to,
or use of, a regulated market,
or multilateral trading facility,
operated by the operator if:5(1) the FCA5 has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator
has contravened a relevant requirement, and5(2) the FCA5 has first complied with sections 312B(3) to (9) of the Act.5
The operator's right to make
arrangements in the United Kingdom,
to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated
market, or multilateral trading
facility, operated by the operator may be reinstated (together
with its exempt person status)
if the FCA5 is
satisfied that the contravention which led the FCA5 to exercise its prohibition power has been remedied.55