Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2
21 - 40 of 466 items.
Achieving the regulatory objectives involves the FCA informing itself of developments in firms and in markets. The Act requires the FCA to monitor a firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act, or by any directly applicable Community regulation or decision made under MiFID or the UCITS Directive or the auction regulation4 (paragraph 6 (1) of Schedule 1). The Act also requires the FCA to take certain steps to cooperate with other relevant bodies and 3regulators
The FCA receives the information in SUP 2.1.3 G through a variety of means, including notifications by firms (see SUP 15) and regular reporting by firms (see SUP 16). This chapter is concerned with the methods of information gathering that the FCA may use on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. This chapter does not deal with the information gathering powers that the FCA has under the Unfair Terms Regulations. These are dealt with in UNFCOG2.12
Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) gives the FCA10 statutory powers, including: 10(1) to require the provision of information (see sections 165 and 103EG 32);31032310(2) to require reports from skilled persons (see section 166 and SUP 5);(3) to appoint investigators (see sections 167, 168 and 169 of the Act and EG 32); and2(4) to apply for a warrant to enter premises (see section 176 of the Act and EG 42).2
The purpose of SUP 2.3 is to amplify Principle 11 in the context of information gathering by the FCA on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. SUP 2.3 therefore sets out, in guidance on Principle 11 and in rules, how the FCA expects firms to deal with the FCA in that context, including the steps that a firm should take with a view to ensuring that certain connected persons should also cooperate with the FCA.
The appropriate regulator4 is required by sections 138B(1) and (2)4 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so. If the appropriate regulator4 publishes a waiver, it will not publish details of why a waiver was required or any of the supporting information given in a waiver application.444
4The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.
When considering whether it is satisfied under section 138B(2)4, the appropriate regulator4 is required by section 138B(3)4 of the Act:444(1) to take into account whether the waiver relates to a rule contravention of which is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (Actions for damages); Schedule 5 identifies such rules;4(2) to consider whether its publication would prejudice, to an unreasonable degree, the commercial interests of the firm concerned, or any other member of its
Waivers can affect the legal rights of third parties, including consumers. In the appropriate regulator's4 view it is important that the fact and effect of such waivers should be transparent. So the fact that a waiver relates to a rule that is actionable under section 138D4 of the Act (see SUP 8.6.2 G (1)) will tend to argue in favour of publication.44
In considering whether commercial interests would be prejudiced to an unreasonable degree (see SUP 8.6.2 G (2)), the appropriate regulator4 will weigh the prejudice to firms' commercial interests against the interests of consumers, markets and other third parties in disclosure. In doing so the appropriate regulator4 will consider factors such as the extent to which publication of the waiver would involve the premature release of proprietary information to commercial rivals, for
The appropriate regulator may ask the auditor to attend meetings and to supply it with information about the firm. In complying with SUP 3.8.2 R, the auditor should attend such meetings as the appropriate regulator requests and supply it with any information the appropriate regulator may reasonably request about the firm to enable the appropriate regulator to discharge its functions under the Act.
SUP 3.6.1 R requires a firm to cooperate with its auditor. SUP 3.6.3 G refers to the rights to information which an auditor is granted by the Act. SUP 3.6.4 G refers to similar rights granted by the Companies Act 1985 or where applicable, the Companies Act 2006,2 the Building Societies Act 1986 and the Friendly Societies Act 1992.
Within the legal constraints that apply, the appropriate regulator may pass on to an auditor any information which it considers relevant to his function. An auditor is bound by the confidentiality provisions set out in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) in respect of confidential information he receives from the appropriate regulator. An auditor may not pass on such confidential information without lawful authority, for example if
(1) Auditors are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an auditor of an authorised person in his capacity as an auditor of a person who has close links with the authorised person.3(2) These regulations oblige auditors to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an
Where an ROIE1 includes in its report made under section 295(1) of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) a statement in compliance with section 295(2)(a) of the Act that an event has occurred in the period covered by that report which is likely to affect the FCA's1 assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the requirements set out in section 292(3) (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), it must include particulars
An ROIE1 must include in its report submitted in compliance with section 295(1) of the Act:1(1) particulars of any changes to: (a) its memorandum and articles of association or any similar or analogous documents; (b) its regulatory provisions; (c) its chairman or president, or chief executive (or equivalent);(2) particulars of any disciplinary action (or any similar or analogous action) taken against it by any supervisory authority in its home territory, whether or not that action
An ROIE1 must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that ROIE1 is made: 11(1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after the application for recognition
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
When a firm appoints a skilled person4 to provide a report under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or collect or update information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act,4 the firm must, in a contract with the skilled person:44(1) require and permit the skilled person during and after the course of his appointment:(a) to cooperate with the appropriate regulator4 in the discharge of its functions under the Act in
In complying with the contractual duty in SUP 5.5.1 R (1) the appropriate regulator4 expects that a skilled person appointed by a firm4 under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act4 will cooperate with the appropriate regulator4 by, amongst other things, providing information or documentation about the planning and progress of the report and its findings and conclusions, if requested
When a firm appoints a skilled person to provide a report under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or collect or update information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act,4 a firm is expected, including where applicable in complying with Principle 11,4 to take reasonable steps to ensure that a skilled person delivers a report or collects or updates information4 in accordance with the terms of his appointment.4
In respect of the appointment of a skilled person under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), section 166(7) of the Act4 imposes a duty on certain persons to give assistance to a skilled person. The persons on whom this duty is imposed are those who are providing, or have at any time provided, services to any person falling within SUP 5.2.1 G. They include suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements.4
4In respect of the appointment of a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, under section 166A(5) a skilled person may require any person to provide all such assistance as the skilled person may reasonably require to collect or update the information in question.
SUP 10A.1.7 R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, in relation to an incoming Treaty firm and a UCITS qualifier, the Treaty and the UCITS Directive. It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. In relation to an incoming EEA firm exercising an EEA right, or an incoming Treaty firm exercising a Treaty right, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of the fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in
Notwithstanding SUP 10A.1.8 G, an incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) or incoming Treaty firm will have had to consider the impact of the Host State rules with which it is required to comply when carrying on a passported activity or Treaty activity through a branch in the United Kingdom. An incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) will have been notified of those provisions under Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act in the course of satisfying the conditions
The Act provides that appointed representatives (see PERG 2.10.5 G), recognised investment exchanges and recognised clearing houses (see PERG 2.10.6 G) and certain other persons exempt under miscellaneous provisions (see PERG 2.10.7 G) are exempt persons. Members of Lloyds and members of the professions are not 'exempt persons' as such, but the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act only applies to them in certain circumstances. The distinction is significant in relation
Various named persons are exempted by Order made by the Treasury under section 38 of the Act from the need to obtain authorisation (the Exemption Order). Some of the exemptions are subject to restrictions as to the circumstances in which they apply. For example, a person is only exempt when acting in a particular capacity or for particular purposes.
But under section 316 of the Act (Direction by a regulator) the general prohibition does not apply to a person who is a member of the Society of Lloyds unless the FCA or PRA has made a direction that it should apply. The general prohibition is disapplied in relation to any regulated activity carried on by a member relating to contracts of insurance written at Lloyds. Directions can be made by the FCA or PRA in relation to individual members or the members of the Society of Lloyds
A person who ceased to be an underwriting member at any time on or after 24 December 1996 may, without authorisation, carry out contracts of insurance he has underwritten at Lloyds. But this is subject to any requirements or rules that the PRA may impose under sections 320 to 322 of the Act (Former underwriting members).
The general prohibition does not in certain circumstances apply to a person providing professional services that are supervised and regulated by a professional body designated by the Treasury under section 326 of the Act (Designation of professional bodies) (see PROF). Certain of the exclusions from regulated activities outlined in PERG 2.8 and PERG 2.9 will be relevant to members of designated professional bodies. The regime outlined below applies only where no exclusion applies
Such a person may carry on regulated activities if the conditions outlined below are met, that is the person:(1) is not affected by an order or direction made by the FCA under section 328 or 329 of the Act (Directions and orders in relation to the general prohibition) which has the effect of re-imposing the general prohibition in any particular case;(2) is, or is controlled by, a member of a profession;(3) does not receive any pecuniary reward or other advantage from the regulated
The regulated activities that may be carried on in this way are restricted by an Order made by the Treasury under section 327(6) of the Act (Exemption from the general prohibition) (the Non-Exempt Activities Order). Accordingly, under that section, a person may not by way of business carry on any of the following activities without authorisation:(1) accepting deposits;(2) effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance;(3) dealing in investments as principal;(3A) 4bidding in
A person carrying on regulated activities under the regime for members of the professions will be subject to rules made by the professional body designated by the Treasury. Such bodies are obliged to make rules governing the carrying on by their members of those regulated activities that they are able to carry on without authorisation under the Act. Where such a person is carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation, he must also be included on the register kept by
If a person performs an FCA controlled function without approval it is not only the firm that is accountable. Under section 63A of the Act (Power to impose penalties), if the FCA is satisfied that:(1) a person (“P”) has at any time performed an FCA controlled function without approval; and(2) at that time P knew, or could reasonably be expected to have known, that P was performing an FCA controlled function without approval;it may impose a penalty on P of such amount as it considers
(1) In accordance with section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval), applications must be submitted by, or on behalf of, the firm itself, not by:(a) the FCAcandidate; or(b) (where the FCAcandidate works for the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company) by the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company.(2) Usually this will be the firm that is employing the FCAcandidate to perform the FCA controlled function. Where a firm has outsourced the performance of an FCA controlled
In any case where the application for approval is made by a person applying for permission under Part 4A of the Act, the FCA has until the end of whichever of the following periods ends last: (1) the period within which an application for that permission must be determined; and(2) the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the FCAcandidate's suitability to be approved to undertake an FCA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the FCA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under
(1) 1Under section 313A of the Act, the FCA5 may for the purpose of protecting:5(a) the interests of investors; or (b) the orderly functioning of the financial markets; require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading.(2) If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned may refer the matter to the Tribunal.5
The procedure the FCA5 will follow if it exercises its power to require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument3 from trading is set out in sections 313B to 313BE of the Act.3 The FCA's internal arrangements provide for decisions to exercise this power to be taken at an appropriately senior level. If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned and the issuer (if any) of the relevant financial instrument may refer the matter to the Tribunal(see EG 2.39)2.2
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a borrower is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
Section 418 of the Act deals with the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom. It extends the meaning that 'carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out additional cases. The Act states that in these cases a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
For the purposes of regulated mortgage activities, sections 418(2), (4), (5), (5A) and (6) are relevant, as follows:(1) Section 418(2) refers to a case where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity in another EEA State in the exercise of rights under a Single Market Directive. The only Single Market Directive which is relevant to mortgages is theCRD3.3(2) Section 418(4) refers to the case where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity and the day-to-day management
The FCA's view of the effect of the Act and Regulated Activities Order in various territorial scenarios is set out in the remainder of this section. In those scenarios:(1) the term "service provider" is used to describe a person carrying on any of the regulated mortgage activities;(2) the term "borrower" refers to a borrower who is an individual and not a trustee; the position of a borrower acting as a trustee is not considered; and(3) it is assumed that the activity is not an
Where a person is carrying on any of the regulated mortgage activities from an establishment maintained by him in the United Kingdom, that person will be 'carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom'. The location and residence of the borrower is irrelevant. That is the practical effect of sections 418(4), (5) and (6) of the Act.
If a service provider is overseas, the question of whether that person is carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom will depend upon:(1) the type of regulated activity being carried on;(2) section 418 of the Act;(3) the residence and location of the borrower;(4) the application of the overseas persons exclusion in article 72(5A) to (5F) of the Regulated Activities Order; and(5) whether the service provider is carrying on an electronic commerce activity.The factors
(1) 8The resources of A must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether A has appropriate resources include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by A;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, A; and(c) A’s membership of a group and any effect which that membership may have.(3) The matters which
(1) The non-financial resources of B must be appropriate in relation to the regulated activities that B carries on or seeks to carry on, having regard to the operational objectives of the FCA.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether the condition in sub-paragraph (1) is met include-(a) the nature and scale of the business carried on, or to be carried on, by B;(b) the risks to the continuity of the services provided by, or to be provided by, B;(c) B’s a member
8Paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the appropriate non-financial resources threshold condition which is relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
8The guidance in COND 2.4 should be read as applying to both paragraph 2D of Schedule 6 of the Act and, as far as relevant to the discharge by the FCA of its functions in respect of firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity under the Act, paragraph 3C of Schedule 6 of the Act.
8Firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity, should note that the PRA is responsible for assessing their financial resources. Paragraphs 4D and 5D of Schedule 6 to the Act contain the threshold conditions relating to financial resources which are relevant to the discharge by the PRA of its functions under the Act in relation to firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity (in addition to additional non-financial resources threshold
(1) [deleted]88(2) In this context, the FCA will interpret the term 'appropriate88' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources (though only in the case of firms not carrying on, or seeking to carry on, a PRA-regulated activity)8, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example, capital, provisions against liabilities, holdings of or access to cash and other liquid assets, human
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm that is an EEA pure reinsurer, or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation,75qualifies for authorisation without condition. Other than those two types of EEA firm, an7EEA firm qualifies
(1) 6Under paragraph 15A(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, an EEA UCITS management company intending to exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme must, before it undertakes that activity, obtain the FCA's10 approval to manage that UCITS scheme. Firms should use the application form set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom)
Under section 31 of the Act, a Treaty firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 (Treaty Rights), that is:(1) the Treaty firm is seeking to carry on a regulated activity; and(2) the conditions set out in paragraph 3(1) of Schedule 4 to the Act are satisfied.
The effect of paragraph 5(1) and 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act is that a Treaty firm which qualifies for authorisation under that Schedule must, at least seven days before it carries on any of the regulated activities covered by its permission, give the appropriate UK regulator10 written notice of its intention to do so. Failure to do so is a criminal offence under paragraph 6(1) of that Schedule.10
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 25 The North Colonnade,
Under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in collective investment schemes), a person who for the time being is an operator, trustee or depositary of a scheme which is a recognised scheme under section 264 of the Act is an authorised person. Such a person is referred to in the Handbook as a UCITS qualifier.
A UCITS qualifier has permission under paragraph 2 of Schedule 5 to the Act, to carry on, as far as is appropriate to the capacity in which it acts in relation to the scheme:(1) the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme; and(2) any activity in connection with, or for the purposes of, the scheme.
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
1The duty in section 300B(1) of the Act does not apply to any of the following:(1) any regulatory provision which is required under EU2 law or any enactment or rule of law in the United Kingdom; or2(2) (a) the specification of the standard terms of any derivative which a UK RIE proposes to admission to trading, or the amendment of the standard terms of any derivative already admitted to trading; or(b) the specification or any amendment of standard terms relating to the provision
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
Under section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the appropriate regulator may grant an application for approval made under section 60 (Applications for approval) only if it is satisfied that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function to which the application relates.
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the appropriate regulator should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the appropriate regulator may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person is competent to carry out a controlled function.
Arrangement is defined in section 59(10) of the Act as any kind of arrangement for the performance of a function which is entered into by a firm or any of its contractors with another person and includes the appointment of a person to an office, his becoming a partner, or his employment (whether under a contract of service or otherwise). For the provisions in this chapter relating to outsourcing, see SUP 10A.13.5 G and SUP 10A.13.6 G.
If, however, a firm is a member of a group, and the arrangements for the performance of an FCA controlled function of the firm are made by, for instance, the holding company, the person performing the function will only require approval if there is an arrangement (under section 59(1)) or a contract (under section 59(2)) between the firm and holding company permitting this. This need not be a written contract but could arise, for example, by conduct, custom and practice.
Section 235(1) states that a collective investment scheme means any arrangements with respect to property of any description. The purpose or effect of the arrangements must be to enable the persons taking part in them to participate in or receive profits or income arising from the acquisition, holding, management or disposal of the property or sums paid out of such profits or income. The participants must not have day-to-day control over the management of the property (section
Analysing a typical corporate structure in terms of the definition of a collective investment scheme, money will be paid to the body corporate in exchange for shares or securities issued by it. The body corporate becomes the beneficial owner of that money in exchange for rights against the legal entity that is the body corporate. The body corporate then has its own duties and rights that are distinct from those of the holders of its shares or securities. Such arrangements will,
Where a body corporate does come within the definition of a collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3), the only relevant issue is to determine whether or not it is excluded. As PERG 9.2.2 G (Introduction) explains, the exclusions are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). If a body corporate satisfies any of the exclusions
In the FCA's view, the question of what constitutes a single scheme in line with section 235(4) of the Act does not arise in relation to a body corporate. This is simply because the body corporate is itself a collective investment scheme (and so is a single scheme). Section 235(4) contemplates a 'separate' pooling of parts of the property that is subject to the arrangements referred to in section 235(1). But to analyse a body corporate in this way requires looking through its
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 of:35(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies);6(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;(d) a breach of a directly applicable provision in the MiFID Regulation;
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation
3SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the appropriate regulator35to:35(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Regulators’35 general duty);35(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;(3) enforce
3The Society must inform the appropriate regulator35 if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings relating to apparent breaches:35(1) of the Act or requirements made under the Act, including the threshold conditions or the Principles or other rules, by an underwriting agent; or(2) of the Statements of Principle by an individual or other person who carries out controlled functions for or on behalf of an underwriting agent.
15Changes that the FCA would expect to be notified of under SUP 15.3.26 R include:(1) an AIFM being appointed to manage another AIF;(2) the appointment of a different depositary for an AIF the AIFM manages; and(3) the appointment of any new senior personnel if the AIFM is not required to apply for the FCA's approval for that appointment under section 59 of the Act.
The appropriate regulator uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:55(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the appropriate regulator has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the
In complying with Principle 11, the appropriate regulator considers that a firm should, in relation to the discharge by the appropriate regulator of its functions under the Act:(1) make itself readily available for meetings with representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator as reasonably requested;(2) give representatives or appointees of the appropriate regulator reasonable access to any records, files, tapes or computer systems, which are within the firm's possession
(1) A firm must permit representatives of the appropriate regulator, or persons appointed for the purpose by the appropriate regulator, to have access, with or without notice, during reasonable business hours to any of its business premises in relation to the discharge of the appropriate regulator's functions under the Act or its obligations under the short selling regulation3.(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that its agents, suppliers under material outsourcing
7In complying with Principle 11, the FCA considers that a firm should cooperate with it in providing information for other regulators. Sections 169 (Investigations etc. in support of overseas regulator) of the Act gives the FCA certain statutory powers to obtain information and appoint investigators for overseas regulators if required (see DEPP 7 and EG 3).
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations;2 or 3(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
The Regulated Activities Order contains exclusions. Exclusions may exist in relation to both the element of investment and the element of activity. Each should therefore be checked carefully. The exclusions that relate to specified investments are considered in PERG 2.6, together with the outline of the specified investments. The exclusions that relate to activities are considered separately from the outline of activities (see PERG 2.8 and PERG 2.9).
It remains the Government's responsibility to ensure the proper implementation of MiFID2. Certain2persons subject to the requirements of MiFID2 must be brought within the scope of regulation under the Act. A core element of MiFID is the concept of investment firm.2 An investment firm is any person whose regular occupation or2 business is2 the provision of one or more2investment services to third parties or the performance of one or more investment activities on a professional
For persons who are MiFID2investment firms, the activities that must be caught by the Regulated Activities Order are those that are caught by MiFID2. To achieve this result, some of the exclusions in the Order (that will apply to persons who are not caught by MiFID2) have been made unavailable to MiFID2investment firms when they provide or perform investment services and activities. A "MiFID investment firm", for these purposes, includes credit institutions to which MiFID applies
The Insurance Mediation Directive has in part been implemented through various amendments to the Regulated Activities Order. These include article 4(4A) (Specified activities: general) which precludes a person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation in relation to a risk or commitment situated in an EEA State from making use of certain exclusions. In other cases, some of the exclusions provided in relation to particular regulated