Related provisions for LR 11.1.7B

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SUP 10A.14.1GRP
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
SUP 10A.14.2GRP
If an FCA-approved person or a PRA-approved person is ceasing to perform FCA controlled functions or PRA controlled function, as well as applying for approval in respect of FCA controlled functions, SUP 10A.14.4 D generally applies. Further details can be found in SUP 10A Annex 2.
SUP 10A.14.6GRP
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by one firm or one of its contractors, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a new firm or one of its contractors (whether or not the new firm is in the same group as the old firm), the new firm will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled
SUP 10A.14.7GRP
In certain circumstances, when the FCA already has the information it would usually require, a shortened version of the relevant Form A may be completed. See the notes relevant to each form for full details.
SUP 10A.14.8RRP
A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function. This does not apply if the firm has already notified the FCA of the proposal to do that using Form E in accordance with this chapter or has notified the PRA of the proposal to do that using the PRA's Form E in accordance with SUP 10B of the PRA's Handbook.
SUP 10A.14.10RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
SUP 10A.14.11GRP
Notification under SUP 10A.14.10 R may be made by telephone, email or fax and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FCA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.
SUP 10A.14.12GRP
A firm is responsible for notifying the FCA if any FCA-approved person has ceased to perform an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by its appointed representative or former appointed representative.
SUP 10A.14.13GRP
A firm can submit Form C or Form E to the FCA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which he performs an FCA controlled function, he will automatically cease to be an FCA-approved person in relation to that FCA controlled function. A person can only be an FCA-approved person in relation to a specific FCA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an FCA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one FCA controlled function
SUP 10A.14.15RRP
If an FCA-approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes, the firm for which the person performs an FCA controlled function must notify the FCA on Form D, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 7R, of that change within seven business days of the firm becoming aware of the matter.
SUP 10A.14.16GRP
The duty to notify in SUP 10A.14.15 R does not apply to changes to an FCA-approved person's private address.
SUP 10A.14.17RRP
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
SUP 10A.14.19GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SUP 10A.14.21GRP
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
SUP 10A.14.23GRP
An example of where a firm should use Form D is when an individual who is appointed by one appointed representative becomes employed by another appointed representative but continues to perform the customer function for the firm. The firm should notify the FCA by completing Section 1.07 of Form D.
FEES 4.4.1RRP
A firm (other than the Society ) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation to fees payable to the FCA or Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1BR in relation to fees payable to the PRA)15 of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.
FEES 4.4.2RRP
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation of fees payable to the FCA or Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1B R in relation to fees payable to the PRA15 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where
FEES 4.4.4GRP
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA),14 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information the FCA or the PRA, as appropriate,14 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the appropriate regulator14
FEES 4.4.7DRP
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
FEES 4.4.8DRP
3A firm4 must send to the FCA in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.7 D as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11.
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
MAR 8.3.6RRP
A benchmark administrator must:(1) have effective arrangements and procedures that allow the regular monitoring and surveillance of benchmark submissions:(2) monitor the benchmark submissions in order to identify breaches of its practice standards (set out in MAR 8.3.10R (1)) and conduct that may involve manipulation, or attempted manipulation, of the specified benchmark it administers and provide to the oversight committee of the specified benchmark timely updates of suspected
MAR 8.3.9GRP
The oversight committee should be responsible for:(1) considering matters of definition and scope of the specified benchmark;(2) exercising collective scrutiny of benchmark submissions if and when required; and(3) notifying the FCA of benchmark submitters that fail on a recurring basis to follow the practice standards (as set out in MAR 8.3.10R (1)) for the specified benchmark.
MAR 8.3.10RRP
The benchmark administrator through its oversight committee must:(1) develop practice standards in a published code which set out the responsibilities for benchmark submitters, the benchmark administrator, and its oversight committee in relation to the relevant specified benchmark;(2) undertake regular periodic reviews of:(a) the practice standards mentioned in MAR 8.3.10R (1);(b) the setting and definition of the specified benchmark it administers;(c) the composition of benchmark
MAR 8.3.11RRP
The benchmark administrator must provide to the FCA, on a daily basis, all benchmark submissions it has received relating tothe specified benchmark it administers.
MAR 8.3.14GRP
MAR 8.3.13 R sets out the minimum amount of financial resources a benchmark administrator must hold in order to carry out administering a specified benchmark. However, the FCA expects benchmark administrators to normally hold sufficient financial resources to cover the operating costs of administering the specified benchmark for a period of nine months.
MAR 8.3.15GRP
The financial resources in respect of the requirement in MAR 8.3.13R (2):(1) can includeliquid financial assets held on the balance sheet of the benchmark administrator, for example, cash and liquid financial instruments where the financial instruments have minimal market and credit risk and are capable of being liquidated with minimal adverse price effect, common stock, retained earnings, disclosed reserves and other instruments generally classified as common equity tier one
MAR 8.3.16GRP
The FCA may use its powers under section 55L of the Act to impose on a benchmark administrator a requirement to hold additional financial resources to MAR 8.3.13 R if the FCA considers it desirable to meet any of its statutory objectives.
IFPRU 2.2.16GRP
A firm should carry out assessments of the sort described in the overall Pillar 2 rule and IFPRU 2.2.13 R at least annually, or more frequently if changes in the business, strategy, nature or scale of its activities or operational environment suggest that the current level of financial resources is no longer adequate. The appropriateness of the internal process, and the degree of involvement of senior management in the process, will be taken into account by the FCA when reviewing
IFPRU 2.2.31RRP
(1) As part of its obligations under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm must carry out an evaluation of its exposure to the interest-rate risk arising from its non-trading activities.(2) The evaluation under (1) must cover the effect of a sudden and unexpected parallel change in interest rates of 200 basis points in both directions.(3) A firm must immediately notify the FCA if any evaluation under this rule suggests that, as a result of the change in interest rates described in
IFPRU 2.2.37RRP
(1) As part of its obligation under the overall Pillar 2 rule, a firm that is a significant IFPRU firm must:(a) for the major sources of risk identified in line with IFPRU 2.2.7R(2), carry out stress tests and scenario analyses that are appropriate to the nature, scale and complexity of those major sources of risk and to the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business; and(b) carry out the reverse stress testing under SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing).(2) In carrying out
IFPRU 2.2.46RRP
A firm that is not a member of a FCAconsolidation group must apply the ICAAPrules on an individual basis. [Note: article 108(1) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.48RRP
A firm controlled by a parent financial holding company in a Member State or a parent mixed financial holding company in a Member State must comply with the ICAAPrules on the basis of the consolidated situation of that holding company, if the FCA is responsible for supervision of the firm on a consolidated basis under article 111 of CRD. [Note: article 108(3) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.51RRP
For the purpose of the ICAAPrules as they apply on a consolidated basis or on a sub-consolidated basis: (1) the firm must ensure that the FCA consolidation group has the processes, strategies and systems required by the overall Pillar 2 rule;(2) the risks to which the overall Pillar 2 rule and the general stress and scenario testing rule refer are those risks as they apply to each member of the FCA consolidation group;(3) the reference in the overall Pillar 2 rule to amounts
IFPRU 2.2.52RRP
(1) This rule relates to the assessment of the amounts, types and distribution of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis and to the assessment of diversification effects as referred to in IFPRU 2.2.14 R (3)(b) as applied on a consolidated basis.(2) A firm must be able to explain how it has aggregated the risks referred to in the overall Pillar 2 rule and the
IFPRU 2.2.53RRP
(1) A firm must allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule (as applied on a consolidated basis) between different parts of the FCA consolidation group. IFPRU 2.2.11 R (Identifying different tiers of capital) does not apply to this allocation(2) The firm must carry out the allocation in (1) in a way that adequately reflects the nature, level and distribution of the risks to which the group
IFPRU 2.2.54RRP
A firm must also allocate the total amount of financial resources, own funds and internal capital (referred to in this rule as "resources") identified as necessary under the overall Pillar 2 rule as applied on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis between each firm which is a member of the FCA consolidation group on the following basis:(1) the amount allocated to each firm must be decided on the basis of the principles in IFPRU 2.2.53 R (2); and(2) if the process in (1)
IFPRU 2.2.55GRP
A firm to which the ICAAPrules apply on a consolidated basis need not prepare a consolidated basis assessment if such an assessment has been prepared by another member of its FCA consolidation group. In such cases, a firm may adopt such an assessment as its own. A firm nevertheless remains responsible for the assessment.
IFPRU 2.2.56GRP
The purpose of IFPRU 2.2.52 R to IFPRU 2.2.55 G is to enable the FCA to assess the extent, if any, to which a firm's assessment, calculated on a consolidated basis, is lower than it would be if each separate legal entity were to assess the amount of capital it would require to mitigate its risks (to the same level of confidence) were it not part of a group subject to consolidated supervision under Part One, Title II, Chapter 2 of the EUCRR (Prudential consolidation). The reason
IFPRU 2.2.59RRP
Where a firm is a member of a FCA consolidation group or a non-EEA sub-group, the firm must ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at those levels comply with the obligations set out in the risk control rules on a consolidated basis (or a sub-consolidated basis).[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.60RRP
Compliance with the obligations in IFPRU 2.2.59 R must enable the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group to have arrangements, processes and mechanisms that are consistent, well integrated and ensure that data relevant to the purpose of supervision can be produced.[Note: article 109(2) of CRD]
IFPRU 2.2.63RRP
When the overall financial adequacy rule applies on a consolidated basis or sub-consolidated basis, the firm must ensure that at all times its FCA consolidation group maintains overall financial resources and internal capital, including own funds and liquidity resources, which are adequate, both as to amount and quality, to ensure that there is no significant risk that the liabilities of any members of its FCA consolidation group cannot be met as they fall due.
IFPRU 2.2.73GRP
(1) In identifying an appropriate range of adverse circumstances and events in accordance with IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2):(a) a firm will need to consider the cycles it is most exposed to and whether these are general economic cycles or specific to particular markets, sectors or industries;(b) for the purposes of IFPRU 2.2.37 R (2)(a), the amplitude and duration of the relevant cycle should include a severe downturn scenario based on forward-looking hypothetical events, calibrated against
IFPRU 2.2.74GRP
The FCA may formulate macroeconomic and financial market scenarios which a firm may use as an additional input to its ICAAP submission. In addition, the FCA may also ask a firm to apply specific scenarios directly in its ICAAP submission.
IFPRU 2.2.86GRP
A firm should include in the written record in IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessments) a description of the broad business strategy of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member, the group's view of its principal risks and its approach to measuring, managing and controlling the risks. This description should include the role of stress testing, scenario analysis and contingency planning in managing risk on an individual basis and consolidated
IFPRU 2.2.87GRP
A firm should satisfy itself that the systems (including IT) of the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member are sufficiently sound to support the effective management and, where applicable, the quantification of the risks that could affect the FCA consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group, as the case may be.
IFPRU 2.2.88GRP
In performing stress tests and scenario analyses, a firm should take into account the risk that its group may have to bring back on to its consolidated balance sheet the assets and liabilities of off-balance sheet entities as a result of reputational contagion, notwithstanding the appearance of legal risk transfer.
FEES 3.2.1RRP
A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R and, if applicable, FEES 3.2.7A R75 as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FCA (in its own capacity or, if the fee is payable to the PRA, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)75 a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with appropriate regulator75 systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification or notice of
FEES 3.2.4GRP
The FCA expects that a person seeking to become a recognised body or a designated professional body or to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies 15will generally pay their respective fees by electronic credit transfer.
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the appropriate regulator will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees payable to the FCA75

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

75

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE75 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7575

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29

(i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1122957529575295752975297529

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555755755

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229

27529752975

29(oa) Either:

(i) a firm applying to the

appropriate regulator

for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the

appropriate regulator

as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or

(ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the

appropriate regulator

for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the

appropriate regulator's

assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the appropriate regulator would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.

(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A.

(2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application.

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.

(c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1.

except in the cases specified in FEES 3 Annex 6A

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance.

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 75 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,75 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

17575111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1376 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713767227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA74 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.74

74The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7474

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]75

75		 75 91675

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

75(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

75(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SUP 6.3.1AGRP
27Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
SUP 6.3.1BGRP
27Under section 55I of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the PRA to vary its Part 4A permission to add regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
SUP 6.3.2AGRP
27Under section 55L(5) of the Act a firm with a Part 4A permission may apply to the FCA for the imposition of a new requirement and/or the variation or cancellation of any requirement previously imposed by the FCA.
SUP 6.3.15DRP
(1) A firm other than a credit union wishing to make an application under SUP 6 must apply online using the form specified on the ONA system.1414272727(2) [deleted]271427(3) Until the application has been determined, a firm which submits an application must inform the relevant regulator27 of any significant change to the information given in the application immediately it becomes aware of the change.27(3A) Where an application requires the consent of the FCA, a firm which submits
SUP 6.3.28AGRP
27Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
SUP 6.3.28BGRP
(1) 27The FCA's duty under section 55B(3) of the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its operational objectives. This may include granting or consenting to (as the case may be) a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able
SUP 6.3.32AGRP
27The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
SUP 6.3.32BGRP
27Thus, when determining an application for variation of Part 4A permission, the FCA can, include new limitations and vary existing limitations, either on application from the firm (for example, the customer categories with which a firm may carry on a specified activity) or, if considered appropriate, by the FCA under section 55E(5) of the Act.
SUP 6.3.32CGRP
27If a firm has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA has the power to impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the variation of permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
SUP 6.3.34AGRP
27Where a firm has made an application to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission and requirements are imposed by the FCA which were not included in the firm's application, the FCA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.36AGRP
27Where the application cannot be determined by the PRA without the consent of the FCA, section 55V(3) of the Act requires that the FCA's decision must also be made within the period required in SUP 6.3.35 G or SUP 6.3.36 G as appropriate.
SUP 6.3.37AGRP
27The FCA publishes standard times on its website setting out how long the application process is expected to take. From time to time, the FCA also publishes its performance against these times.
SUP 6.3.40GRP
DEPP9gives guidance on the FCA's27 decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part 4A permission or for imposition or variation of a requirement27 either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FCA27 but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).92727
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission if they do not (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator)):2727(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or27(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 for a period
FIT 1.3.1GRP
The appropriate regulator will have regard to a number of factors when assessing the fitness and propriety of a person to perform a particular controlled function. The most important considerations will be the person's:(1) honesty, integrity and reputation;(2) competence and capability; and(3) financial soundness.
FIT 1.3.2GRP
In assessing fitness and propriety, the appropriate regulator will also take account of the activities of the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed, the permission held by that firm and the markets within which it operates.
FIT 1.3.3GRP
The criteria listed in FIT 2.1 to FIT 2.3 are guidance and will be applied in general terms when the appropriate regulator is determining a person's fitness and propriety. It would be impossible to produce a definitive list of all the matters which would be relevant to a particular determination.
FIT 1.3.4GRP
If a matter comes to the appropriate regulator's attention which suggests that the person might not be fit and proper, the appropriate regulator will take into account how relevant and how important it is.
FIT 1.3.5GRP
During the application process, the appropriate regulator may discuss the assessment of the candidate's fitness and propriety informally with the firm making the application and may retain any notes of those discussions.
LR 3.2.1GRP
The FCA will maintain the official list on its website.
LR 3.2.2RRP
An applicant for admission must apply to the FCA by:(1) submitting, in final form:(a) the documents described in LR 3.3 in the case of an application in respect of equity shares;44(b) the documents described in LR 3.4 in the case of an application in respect of debt securities or other securities;(c) the documents described in LR 3.5 in the case of a block listing;(2) submitting all additional documents, explanations and information as required by the FCA;(3) submitting verification
LR 3.2.3GRP
Before submitting the documents referred to in LR 3.2.2 R (1), an applicant should contact the FCA to agree the date on which the FCA will consider the application.3
LR 3.2.4RRP
All documents must be submitted to the Issuer Management5at the FCA's address.5
LR 3.2.5GRP
The FCA will admit securities to listing if all relevant documents required byLR 3.2.2 R2 have been submitted to the FCA.2
LR 3.2.6GRP
When considering an application for admission to listing, the FCA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting with other regulators or exchanges;(2) request that an applicant, or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application for listing;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application
LR 3.2.7GRP
The admission becomes effective only when the FCA's decision to admit the securities to listing has been announced by being either:(1) disseminated by a RIS; or(2) posted on a notice board designated by the FCA should the electronic systems be unavailable.
FEES 2.1.1RRP
621Except to the extent referred to in FEES 2.1.1A R, this1621120 chapter applies to every person who is required to pay a fee or share of a levy to the appropriate regulator, FOS Ltd or FSCS, as the case may be, by a provision of the Handbook.
FEES 2.1.4GRP
The purpose of this chapter is to set out the general provisions applicable to those who are required to pay fees or levies to the5appropriate regulator or a share of the FSCS levy.621562156
FEES 2.1.5GRP
Paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 of2 the Act,7 regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and 3 regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations7 enable the FCA18 to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions. The corresponding provisions for the FSCS levy ,5FOS levies and CFEB levies5 are set out in FEES 6.1,5FEES 5.2 and FEES 7.1.4 G5 respectively. Case fees payable to the FOS Ltd are set out in FEES 5.5A. 621Fee-paying payment service providers
FEES 2.1.5AGRP
3Regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations each provide7 that the functions of the FCA18 under the respective7 regulations are treated for the purposes of paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 to the Act as functions conferred on the FCA18 under the Act. Paragraphs 23(7) and 20(1)(b) 18 however, have not been included .7 These are, respectively, the FCA's187 obligation to ensure that the amount of penalties received or expected
FEES 2.1.6GRP
The appropriate regulator18fees payable will vary from one fee year18 to another, and will reflect the appropriate regulator's18funding requirement for that period and the other key components, as described in FEES 2.1.7G. Periodic fees, which will normally be payable on an annual basis, will provide the majority of the funding required to enable the appropriate regulator18to undertake its statutory functions.18181818
FEES 2.1.7GRP
The key components of the appropriate regulator fee mechanism (excluding the FSCS5levy, the FOS5 levy and case fees, and the CFEB levy5which are dealt with in FEES 5,5FEES 6 and FEES 7)5 are:555(1) a funding requirement derived from:(a) the appropriate regulator's financial management and reporting framework;(b) the appropriate regulator's budget; and(c) adjustments for audited variances between budgeted and actual expenditure in the previous accounting year, and reserves movements
FEES 2.1.9GRP
By basing fee-blocks on categories of business, the appropriate regulator aims to minimise cross-sector subsidies. The membership of the fee-blocks is identified in the FEES provisions relating to the type of fees concerned.
FEES 2.1.9AGRP
18PRA-authorised persons and persons seeking to become PRA-authorised persons should note that the FCA and the PRA have agreed for the FCA to act as the PRA's agent in relation to the collection of PRA fees. Where applicable, both PRA and FCA fees should be paid as a single payment to the FCA, which will receive the payment in its own capacity in respect of FCA fees and in its capacity as agent for the PRA in respect of the PRA fees. References to this arrangement will be referred
REC 3.8.1RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a copy of its annual report and accounts; and(2) a copy of the consolidated annual report and accounts: (a) of any group in which the UK recognised body is a subsidiary undertaking; or(b) (if the UK recognised body is not a subsidiary undertaking in any group) of any group of which the UK recognised body is a parent undertaking;no later than the time specified for the purpose of this rule in REC 3.8.2 R.
REC 3.8.2RRP
The time specified for the purpose of REC 3.8.1 R is the latest of:(1) four months after the end of the financial year to which the document which is to be given to the FCA1relates; or1(2) the time when the documents described in REC 3.8.1 R (1) or REC 3.8.1 R (2)(b) are sent to the members or shareholders of the UK recognised body; or (3) the time when the document described in REC 3.8.1 R (2)(a) are sent to the shareholders in a parent undertaking of the group to which that
REC 3.8.3RRP
Where an audit committee of a UK recognised body has prepared a report in relation to any period or any matter relating to any relevant function of that UK recognised body, the UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1a copy of that report.1
REC 3.8.4RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1a copy of:1(1) its quarterly management accounts; or (2) its monthly management accounts;within one month of the end of the period to which they relate.
REC 3.8.5GRP
A UK recognised body is not required to provide quarterly and monthly management accounts in respect of the same period, but management accounts (whether quarterly or monthly) should be submitted for all periods. A UK recognised body may choose whichever method is the more suitable for it, but where it intends to change from providing monthly to quarterly management accounts (or from quarterly to monthly management accounts), it should inform the FCA1 of that fact.1
REC 3.8.6RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a statement of its anticipated income, expenditure and cashflow for each financial year; and(2) an estimated balance sheet showing its position as it is anticipated at the end of each financial year;before the beginning of that financial year.
REC 3.8.7RRP
Where the accounting reference date of a UK recognised body is changed, that body must immediately give notice of that event to the FCA1and inform it of the new accounting reference date.1
SUP 15.5.1RRP
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in:10(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.
SUP 15.5.4RRP
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:10(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.
SUP 15.5.5RRP
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following telephone numbers, and give details of the new telephone number and the date of the change:1310(1) the number of the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom;(2) in the case of an overseas firm, the number of its head office.3
SUP 15.5.6GRP
SUP 15.5.4 R and SUP 15.5.5 R mean that a firm should notify the appropriate regulator10 of a change in telephone number even if the address of the office is not changing.31310
SUP 15.5.7RRP
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator10 immediately if it becomes subject to or ceases to be subject to the supervision of any overseas regulator (including a Home State regulator). 10
SUP 15.5.8GRP
The appropriate regulator's10 approach to the supervision of a firm is influenced by the regulatory regime and any legislative or foreign provisions to which that firm, including its branches, is subject. 10
SUP 15.5.9RRP
(1) 2A firm other than a credit union must submit any notice underSUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4Rand10SUP 15.5.5 R3 by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at the appropriate regulator's website.101010(2) A credit union must submit any notice under SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4R, SUP 15.5.5 R3 and SUP 15.5.7R by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit a notice online
SUP 15.5.10GRP
(1) If the appropriate regulator's10 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the appropriate regulator10 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.5.9R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.1010(2) Where 10SUP 15.5.9R (2)10 applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency)
SUP 13.7.3GRP
If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FCA15 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or15(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances
SUP 13.7.6AGRP
5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3A G, SUP 13.7.3B G, SUP 13.7.5 G (1)and SUP 13.7.6 G,15UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).151551515
SUP 13.7.13AGRP
15Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
SUP 11.9.1ARRP
6(1) A firm must notify the FCA that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person. The notification must be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form (see SUP 11.9.3B G).5(2) If a group includes more than one firm, a single close links notification may be made by completing the Close Links Notification Form and so satisfy the notification requirement for all firms in the group. Nevertheless, the requirement to notify, and the responsibility for notifying,
SUP 11.9.3-AGRP
6The FCA may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.9.1A R in order to satisfy itself that the firm continues to satisfy the threshold conditions (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the FCA and PRA on their own initiative).
SUP 11.9.3BGRP
6The Close Links Notification Form approved by the FCA for notifications under SUP 11.9.1A R, SUP 11.9.5A R may be found at the FCA website.5
SUP 11.9.4ARRP
6The firm must make a notification to the FCA under SUP 11.9.1A R:(1) as soon as reasonably practicable and no later than one month after it becomes aware that it has become or ceased to be closely linked with any person; or(2) where a firm has elected to report on a monthly basis, within fifteen business days of the end of each month by completing the Close Links Notification Form4 for that month and must submit the group organisation chart on a quarterly basis unless there have
SUP 11.9.5ARRP
6(1) A firm elects to report changes in close links on a monthly basis by sending a written notice of election to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA.(2) An election to report changes in close links on a monthly basis will stand until such time as the firm gives its usual supervisory contact at the FCA at least one month's written notice of its intention to cease reporting changes in close links on a monthly basis.
SUP 11.9.6AGRP
6The FCA considers that monthly reporting of changes in close links will ordinarily only be appropriate for firms forming part of large groups.
RCB 2.2.2GRP
RCB 3.6.5 D sets out the methods the issuer may use to send the form to the FCA.
RCB 2.2.3DRP
Until the application has been determined by the FCA, the issuer must inform the FCA of any significant change to the information given in the application immediately it becomes aware of that change.
RCB 2.2.4GRP
The form and content of the application documentation is a matter for direction by the FCA, which will determine what additional information and documentation may be required on a case-by-case basis.
RCB 2.2.5GRP
The FCA will not treat the application as having been received until it receives the registration fee (see RCB 5.2.5 R) and all relevant documentation requested by the FCA before its on-site review of the application.1
RCB 2.2.6DRP
The issuer must ensure that a director or a1senior manager of the issuer verifies the application by confirming on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports as required by RCB 2.3.16 D and is satisfied that:(1) the information provided in the application is correct and complete; and (2) the arrangements relating to the covered bond or programme will comply with the requirements in the RCB Regulations and in RCB.
RCB 2.2.7GRP
The FCA expects the issuer to be able to justify any reliance it places on advice or reports which are not reasonably contemporaneous with the confirmation the senior manager gives in relation to compliance with the requirements of the RCB Regulations and RCB.
RCB 2.2.8DRP
The issuer must ensure that the senior manager, who verifies the application for registration under this section, gives their consent to the FCA displaying their confirmation of compliance with the relevant requirements on the FCA's website.
IFPRU 3.2.4GRP
For the purposes of article 4(1)(126) (Definition of synthetic holding) and Part Two (Own funds) of the EUCRR, the FCA considers the holdings described in IFPRU 3.2.5 G to be examples of indirect or synthetic holdings by an IFPRU investment firm of own common equity tier 1 instruments.
IFPRU 3.2.7RRP
A firm must report to the FCA all connected transactions described in IFPRU 3.2.6 R at least one month in advance of entry into the relevant transaction and identify each relevant transaction with sufficient detail to allow the FCA to evaluate it.
IFPRU 3.2.8RRP
A firm must demonstrate to the FCA that any additional tier 1 instrument or tier 2 instrument issued by it that is governed by the law of a third country is by its terms capable, as part of a resolution of the firm, of being written down or converted into a common equity tier 1 instrument of the firm to the same extent as an equivalent own funds instrument issued under the law of the UK.
IFPRU 3.2.9RRP
A firm must include, in the materials it provides to the FCA under IFPRU 3.2.8 R, a properly reasoned legal opinion from an individual appropriately qualified in the relevant third country.
IFPRU 3.2.10RRP
A firm must notify the FCA of the following:(1) its intention; or(2) the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm, but is included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm;to issue a capital instrument that it believes will qualify under the EUCRR as own funds other than a common equity tier 1 capital at least one month before the intended date of issue.
IFPRU 3.2.11RRP
A firm does not have to give notice under IFPRU 3.2.10 R if the capital instrument is: (1) an ordinary share; or(2) a debt instrument issued under a debt securities programme under which the firm or group member has previously issued and the firm has notified the FCA, in accordance with IFPRU 3.2.10 R, prior to a previous issuance under the programme.
IFPRU 3.2.13RRP
A firm must notify the FCA in writing, no later than the date of issue of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to issue a capital instrument described in IFPRU 3.2.11 R.
IFPRU 3.2.15RRP
The firm must promptly notify the FCA of any change to the intended date of issue, amount of issue, type of investors, type of own funds or any other feature of the capital instrument to that previously notified to the FCA under IFPRU 3.2.10 R or IFPRU 3.2.13 R.
IFPRU 3.2.16RRP
A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group that is not a firm included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to amend or otherwise vary the terms of any own funds instrument included in its own funds or the own funds of its consolidated group at least one month before the intended date of such amendment or other variation.
IFPRU 3.2.17RRP
A firm must notify the FCA of its intention, or the intention of another member of its group included in the supervision on a consolidated basis of the firm, to carry out any of the actions described in article 77 of the EUCRR (Conditions for reducing own funds) for an own funds instrument.
REC 4.8.1GRP
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition) or (for RAPs) regulation 4 of the RAP regulations; or3(2) make a direction under section 296 (FCA's4powers to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations; or34(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders) or 290A (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision) or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations32;is
REC 4.8.2GRP
The FCA's4 internal arrangements provide for any of these decisions to be taken at an appropriately senior level.4
REC 4.8.3GRP
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:4(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31may affect the statutory
REC 4.8.4GRP
In considering whether or not to make a recognition order, the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors, including its guidance to recognised bodies and applicants and the information provided by applicants. Details of the application processes and other guidance for applicants are set out in REC 5 and (for overseas applications) REC 6.4
REC 4.8.5GRP
The procedures laid down in section 298 of the Act and (for RAPs) regulation 5 of the RAP regulations3are summarised, with the FCA's4 guidance about the actions it proposes to take in following these procedures, in the tables4 at REC 4.8.9 G and REC 4.8.10 G respectively4.44
REC 4.8.6GRP
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations3, the FCA4 will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the key individuals or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.4
REC 4.8.9GRP

3Key steps in the section 298 procedure4

The FCA4 will:

4

Guidance

(1)

give written notice to theRIE4 (or applicant);

4

The notice will state why the FCA4 intends to take the action it proposes to take, and include an invitation to make representations, and the period within which representations should be made (unless subsequently extended by the FCA)4.

4

(2)4

4

receive representations from the RIE or applicant concerned;4

4

The FCA4 will not usually consider oral representations without first receiving written representations from theRIE (or applicant)4. It will normally only hear oral representations from the RIE4 on request.

444

(3)4

4

write promptly to RIE (or applicant)4 who requests the opportunity to make oral representations if it decides not to hear that person's representations;

4

The FCA4 will indicate why it will not hear oral representations and the FCA4 will allow the RIE (or applicant)4 further time to respond.

444

(4)4

4

have regard to representations made;

(5)4

4

(when it has reached its decision) notify the RIE4 (or applicant) concerned in writing.

4
4
REC 4.8.10GRP

4For RAPs, key steps in the regulation 5 procedure

The FCA will:

Guidance

(1)

give written notice to the RAP (or applicant);

The notice will state why the FCA intends to take the action it proposes to take, and include an invitation to make representations, and the date by which representations should be made.

(2)

take such steps as it considers reasonably practicable to bring the notice to the attention of the members of the RAP or of the applicant, as the case may be;

The FCA will also notify persons individually (as far as it considers it reasonably practicable to do so) if it considers that the action it proposes to take would affect them adversely in a way which would be different from its effect on other persons of the same class.

(3)

publish the notice so as to bring it to the attention of other persons likely to be affected;

(4)

receive representations from the RAP or applicant concerned, any member of the RAP or applicant, and any other person who is likely to be affected by the action the FCA proposes to take;

The FCA will not usually consider oral representations without first receiving written representations from the person concerned. It will normally only hear oral representations from the RAP (or applicant) itself or of a person whom it has notified individually, on request.

(5)

write promptly to any person who requests the opportunity to make oral representations if it decides not to hear that person's representations;

The FCA will indicate why it will not hear oral representations and the FCA will allow the person concerned further time to respond.

(6)

have regard to representations made;

(7)

(when it has reached its decision) notify the RAP (or applicant) concerned in writing;

(8)

(if it has decided to give a direction, or revoke or refuse to make a recognition order) take such steps as it considers reasonably practicable to bring its decision to the attention of members of the RAP or applicant and to other persons likely to be affected.

The FCA will usually give notice of its decision to the same persons and in the same manner as it gave notice of its intention to act.
FEES App 1.2.1RRP
A registered society must pay to the FCA, in full and without deduction, the periodic fee applicable to it under Annex 1R for a financial year during which, or part of which, the society is registered, except as provided for in 1.2.5 R and 1.2.6 R.
FEES App 1.2.5BRRP
If a registered society fails to file an R by the date it is required to be filed:(1) the R used to determine the amount of the periodic fee payable by the registered society will be that shown in the R last filed with the FCA or its predecessor; and(2) the registered society must pay an administrative fee equal to the lower of the periodic fee payable by the registered society under Annex 1R for that year, and £250.
FEES App 1.2.6RRP
If a registered society ceases to be a registered society on or after 1 April in a particular financial year, but before an invoice for the periodic fee payable under 1.2.1 R for the financial year in which the society ceases to be a registered society has been issued by the FCA, the periodic fee payable by that registered society under 1.2.1 R is the amount of the periodic fee under Annex 1R for the immediately preceding financial year.
FEES App 1.2.8RRP
A registered society need not pay a periodic fee on the date which it is due under the relevant provision in these rules, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in R(Emergencies) exist, and that registered society has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case it must pay on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) that date would otherwise
FEES App 1.2.10GRP
The FCA expects to issue invoices for periodic fees at least 30 days before the date on which they fall due. Accordingly, it will generally be the case that a registered society will have at least 30 days from the issue of the invoice before an administrative fee becomes payable, and at least 45 days before any interest becomes payable.
FEES App 1.2.11GRP
If a sponsoring body does not pay the required periodic fee for a set of by the due date, the rules will cease to be model rules and applications for the registration of societies that use the rules will be charged by the FCA as if the rules were a free draft.
FEES App 1.2.12GRP
If a sponsoring body wishes to change a set of model rules, it should supply a copy to the FCA indicating the proposed changes. No application fee is payable for such changes.
FEES App 1.2.13GRP
The FCA will not refund periodic fees in any circumstances.
PR 3.1.3RRP
(1) The applicant must submit to the FCA by the date specified in paragraph (2):(a) the completed form A in final form;(b) the relevant fee; and(c) the other information referred to in PR 3.1.1 R in draft form.(2) The date referred to in paragraph (1) is:(a) at least 10 working days before the intended approval date of the prospectus; or(b) at least 20 working days before the intended approval date of the prospectus if the applicant does not have transferable securitiesadmission
PR 3.1.6GRP
If an applicant wishes the FCA to provide a certificate of approval to another competent authority at the time the prospectus is approved, it should include a request for the supply of the certificate with its application for approval of the prospectus (PR 5.3.2 R sets out the requirements for such a request).
PR 3.1.7UKRP

Section 87A(1) of the Act provides for the approval of a prospectus by the FCA:

(1)

The [FCA] may not approve a prospectus unless it is satisfied that:

(a)

the United Kingdom is the home State in relation to the issuer of the transferable securities to which it relates,

(b)

the prospectus contains the necessary information, and

(c)

all of the other requirements imposed by or in accordance with this Part or the prospectus directive have been complied with (so far as those requirements apply to a prospectus for the transferable securities in question).
PR 3.1.9RRP
The FCA will follow the executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions if it:(1) proposes to refuse to approve a prospectus; or(2) decides to refuse to approve a prospectus after having given the applicant a written notice.Note: DEPP 44 sets out the executive procedures for statutory notice decisions and statutory notice associated decisions.4
PR 3.1.10RRP
A prospectus must not be published until it has been approved by the FCA. [ Note: article 13.1 PD ]
PR 3.1.12RRP
(1) A person seeking to have the function of approving a prospectus transferred to the competent authority of another EEA State must make a written request to the FCA at least 10 working days before the date the transfer is sought.(2) The request must:(a) set out the reasons for the proposed transfer;(b) state the name of the competent authority to whom the transfer is sought; and(c) include a copy of the draft prospectus.
PR 3.1.13GRP
The FCA will consider transferring the function of approving a prospectus to the competent authority of another EEA State:(1) if requested to do so by the issuer, offeror or person requesting admission or by another competent authority; or(2) in other cases if the FCA considers it would be more appropriate for another competent authority to perform that function.
PR 3.1.14RRP
A person who wishes the FCA to vet an equivalent document referred to in PR 1.2.2 R (2) or (3) or PR 1.2.3R (3) or (4) must submit to the FCA:(1) a copy of the document;(2) a cross reference list identifying the pages in the document where each item that is equivalent to the disclosure requirements for a prospectus may be found;(3) contact details of individuals who are:(a) sufficiently knowledgeable about the documentation to be able to answer queries from the FCA; and(b) available
REC 3.3.1GRP
Under section 294 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the FCA1 may, on the application or with the consent of a recognised body (including an ROIE),1 direct that any notification rule is not to apply to the body or is to apply with such modifications as may be specified in the waiver.11
REC 3.3.3GRP
Under section 294(4) of the Act, before the FCA1 may give a waiver of notification rules, it must be satisfied that:1(1) compliance by the recognised body with those notification rules, or with those rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which those rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests those rules are designed to protect.
REC 3.3.4GRP
Where a recognised body wishes to make an application to the FCA1 for a waiver of a notification rule, it should in the first instance inform its usual supervisory contact at the FCA.111
REC 3.3.5GRP
There is no application form, but applicants should make their application formally and in writing and in accordance with any direction the FCA1 may make under section 294(2) of the Act. Each application should set out at least:1(1) full particulars of the waiver which is requested; (2) the reason why the recognised body believes that the criteria set out in section 294(4) (and described in REC 3.3.3 G) would be met, if this waiver were granted; and (3) where the recognised body
REC 3.3.6GRP
The FCA1 may request further information from the applicant, before deciding whether to give a waiver under section 294 of the Act.1
REC 3.3.7GRP
Any waiver given by the FCA1 under section 294 of the Act will be made in writing, stating: 1(1) the name of the recognised body in respect of which the waiver is made;(2) the notification rules which are to be waived or modified in respect of that body;(3) where relevant, the manner in which any rule is to be modified;(4) any condition or time limit to which the waiver is subject; and(5) the date from which the waiver is to take effect.
REC 3.3.8GRP
Where the FCA1 considers that it will not give the waiver which has been applied for, the FCA1 will give reasons to the applicant for its decision. The FCA1 will endeavour, where practicable, to inform an applicant in advance where it seems that an application is likely to fail unless it is amended or expanded, so that the applicant will have the opportunity to make any necessary amendments or additions before the application is considered.111
REC 3.3.9GRP
Where the FCA1 wishes to give a waiver under section 294 of the Act with the consent of a recognised body (rather than on the application of a recognised body), the FCA1 will correspond or discuss this with that body in order to agree an appropriate waiver.11
REC 3.3.10GRP
The FCA1 will periodically review any waiver it has given. The FCA1 has the right to revoke a waiver under section 294(6) of the Act. This right is likely to be exercised in the event of a material change in the circumstances of the recognised body or in any fact on the basis of which the waiver was given.11
SUP 10A.6.1GRP
Every firm will have one or more persons responsible for directing its affairs. These persons will be performing the FCA governing functions and will be required to be FCA-approved persons unless the application provisions in SUP 10A.1, or the particular description of an FCA controlled function, provide otherwise. For example, each director of a company incorporated under the Companies Acts will perform an FCA governing functions. However, if the firm is a PRA-authorised person,
SUP 10A.6.10GRP
A director can be a body corporate and may accordingly require approval as an FCA-approved person in the same way as a natural person may require approval.
SUP 10A.6.11GRP
The director function does not apply in relation to a PRA-authorised person. PRA approval is required instead.
SUP 10A.6.16GRP
(1) This paragraph explains the basis on which the director function and the non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10A.6.8 R or SUP 10A.6.13 R.(2) The basic position is set out in SUP 10A.3.4 G. As is the case with all controlled functions, SUP 10A.6.8 R and SUP 10A.6.13 R are subject to the overriding provisions in SUP 10A.3.1 R, which sets out the requirements of section 59(1)
SUP 10A.6.19GRP
For a branch in the United Kingdom of an overseas firm, the FCA would not normally expect the overseas chief executive of the firm as a whole to be FCA-approved for this function where there is a senior manager under him with specific responsibility for those activities of the branch which are subject to the UKregulatory system. In some circumstances, the person within the firm responsible for UK operations may, if the function is likely to enable him to exercise significant influence
SUP 10A.6.21GRP
Note that a body corporate may be a chief executive. If so, it will need to be approved (if the firm in question is an FCA-authorised person) to perform the chief executive function.
SUP 10A.6.24GRP
Any apportionment referred to in SUP 10A.6.23R (3)(b) will have taken place under SYSC 2.1.1 R or SYSC 4.3.1 R and SYSC 4.4.3 R. The FCA may ask to see details of the apportionment but will not require, as a matter of course, a copy of the material which records this (see SYSC 2.2).
SUP 10A.6.25GRP
The effect of SUP 10A.1.17 R is that regulated activity in SUP 10A.6.23 R (and elsewhere) is to be taken as not including an activity that is a non-mainstream regulated activity. Therefore, a partner whose only regulated activities are incidental to his professional services, in a partnership whose principal purpose is to carry on other than regulated activities, need not be an FCA-approved person. What amounts to the principal purpose of the firm is a matter of fact in each case
SUP 10A.6.33GRP
Typically a non-directive friendly Society will appoint a “committee of management” to direct its affairs. However, the governing arrangements may be informal and flexible. If this is the case, the FCA would expect the society to resolve to give responsibility for the carrying on of regulated activities to one individual who is appropriate in all the circumstances. That individual may, for example, have the title of chief executive or similar. The individual would have to be an
SUP 10A.6.34GRP
In practice, the FCA expects that most non-directive friendly societies will be PRA-authorised persons. Where that is the case, the small friendly society function will not apply. PRA approval is required instead.