Related provisions for PERG 6.2.2
321 - 340 of 374 items.
(1) 7The guidance at COLL 5.7.11 G applies to an authorised fund manager of a qualified investor scheme carrying out due diligence for the purpose of COLL 8.4.5 R, as if that guidance related to COLL 8.4.5 R.(2) Where COLL 5.7.11G (10) refers to COLL 6.3 (Valuation and pricing), that reference should be read as if it were a reference to COLL 8.5.9 R (Valuation, pricing and dealing).(3) In addition to the guidance at COLL 5.7.11 G the authorised fund manager should, as part of
Intermediaries involved with arranging and advising on deposits may be unauthorised persons as such activities do not amount to regulated activities (other than where they involve giving basic advice on a stakeholder product (article 52A of the Regulated Activities Order (Giving basic advice on a stakeholder product))) and so do not require authorisation under section 19 of the Act. However, the combination of the exemptions in Part V together with certain of the exemptions in
The FCA5 may also use its own-initiative powers5 for
enforcement purposes. EG 82 sets out in detail the FCA's5 powers under sections 55J and 55L of the Act5 and
the circumstances under which the FCA5 may use its own-initiative powers5 in this way, whether for enforcement purposes or as part of its
day to day supervision of firms.
This chapter provides additional guidance on when the FCA5 will use these powers for supervision purposes.55255555
This chapter (the custody rules) applies to a firm:21(1) [deleted]22(a) [deleted]22(b) [deleted]22(1A) 2when it holds financial instruments belonging to a client in the course of its MiFID business;7(1B) 2when it is safeguarding and administering investments, in the course of business that is not MiFID business;7(1C) when it is acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF; and/or
7(1D) when it is acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS.
7(2) [deleted]22
The following rules and guidance apply to VJ participants as part of the standard terms, except where the context requires otherwise:(1) DISP 1 (Treating complainants4fairly), except:4(a) DISP 1.94(Complaints record rule);4(b) DISP 1.104(Complaints reporting rules); and4(c) DISP 1.114(Lloyd's);4(2) DISP 2 (Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service), except:(a) DISP 2.3 (Compulsory Jurisdiction); and(b) DISP 2.4 (Consumer Credit Jurisdiction); and(3) DISP 3 (Complaint handling4
2This section sets out in greater detail the approach to be taken by a firm when carrying out the assessment of capital described in the preceding paragraph. This is the assessment referred to as an individual capital assessment. 3GENPRU 1.2.42 R is a general requirement for a firm to carry out stress tests and scenario analyses taking into account an appropriate range of adverse circumstances and events relevant to the firm's business and risk profile and to estimate the financial
The rules and guidance relating to training and competence in SYSC 3 and SYSC 5 and 6 in TC for a firm carrying on retail business 6extend to any employee of the firm in respect of whom the relevant rules apply. For these purposes, an employee of a firm includes: (1) an individual who is an appointed representative of a firm; and(2) an individual who is employed or appointed by an appointed representative of a firm (whether under a contract of service or for services) in connection
(1) An application should be made by the proprietor of the relevant publication or service using the appropriate form, accessible from our website (see Forms/ Perimeter Guidance manual forms). The form asks for general information about the applicant and gives guidance notes on completion and other details of how the FCA can help.(2) An applicant will be asked to state his own view of the principal purpose of the publication or service. This should include an explanation why the
Additional guidance for a firm carrying on insurance business, accepting deposits, operating a dormant account fund8 or which holds client money or customer's assets is given in SUP 6 Annex 4. As noted in SUP 6.2.9 G, it will usually be appropriate for a firm to apply for variation of its Part 4A permission and/or the imposition, variation or cancellation of a requirement24 while winding down (running off) its regulated activities and before applying to cancel its Part 4A per
Article 61(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order defines a regulated mortgage contract as a contract which, at the time it is entered into, satisfies the following conditions:(1) the contract is one where a lender provides credit to an individual or trustees (the 'borrower');(2) the contract provides for the obligation of the borrower to repay to be secured by a first legal mortgage on land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom; and(3) at least 40% of that
This chapter sets out rules and guidance on the role auditors play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. In determining whether a firm satisfies the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator has regard to whether the firm has appointed auditors with sufficient experience in the areas of business to be conducted by the firm. Auditors act as a source of information for the appropriate
The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries doing business within the Directive’s scope4 must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United