Related provisions for PERG 6.4.3
81 - 100 of 719 items.
17The fees for collective investment schemes reflect the estimated costs to the FCA of assessing applications and notifications. The level of fees payable in respect of an application or a notification will vary depending upon the provision of the Act under which it is made. This fee is adjusted when the scheme concerned is an umbrella.
Applications for Part 4A permission (and exercises of Treaty rights) are categorised by the appropriate regulator for the purpose of fee raising as complex, moderately complex and straightforward as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1. This differentiation is based on the permitted activities sought and does not reflect the appropriate regulator's risk assessment of the applicant (or Treaty firm).
A potential applicant for Part 4A permission17 (or Treaty firm) has the opportunity to discuss its proposed application (or exercise of Treaty rights) with the appropriate regulator17 before submitting it formally.2 If an applicant for Part 4A permission17 (or Treaty firm) does so, the appropriate regulator17 will be able to use that dialogue to make an initial assessment of the fee categorisation and therefore indicate the authorisation fee that should be paid. 171722171717
In the FCA's view, the circumstances in which a person is giving advice on the borrower varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract so as to vary his obligations under the contract include (but are not limited to) where the advice is about:(1) the borrower obtaining a further advance secured on the same land as the original loan; or(2) a rate switch or a product switch (that is, where the borrower does not change lender but changes the terms for repayment from, say, a variable
In the FCA's view, guiding a person through scripted questions or a decision tree should not, of itself, involve advice within the meaning of article 53A (it should be generic advice). But the combination of advice, which in isolation may properly be considered generic, with the identification of a particular or several particular regulated mortgage contracts may well, in the FCA's view, cause the person to be advising on regulated mortgage contracts; the FCA considers that it
In the FCA's view, advice requires an element of opinion on the part of the adviser which steers or is intended to steer a borrower or potential borrower in the direction of one or more particular mortgages. In effect, it is a recommendation as to a course of action. Information on the other hand, involves objective statements of facts and figures.
In the FCA's opinion, however, such information is likely take on the nature of advice if the circumstances in which it is provided give it the force of a recommendation as described in PERG 4.6.10 G. Examples of situations where information provided by a person ('P') are likely to take the form of advice are given below.(1) P provides information on a selected, rather than balanced and neutral, basis that would tend to influence the decision of the borrower. This may arise where
Undertaking the process of scripted questioning gives rise to particular issues concerning advice. These mainly involve two aspects of this regulated activity. These are that advice must relate to a particular regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.6.5 G) and the distinction between information and advice (see PERG 4.6.13 G). Whether or not scripted questioning in any particular case is advising on regulated mortgage contracts will depend on all the circumstances. If the process
The potential for variation in the form, content and manner of scripted questioning is considerable, but there are two broad types. The first type involves providing questions and answers which are confined to factual matters (for example, whether a borrower wishes to pay a fixed or variable rate of interest or the size of deposit available). In the FCA's view, this does not of itself amount to advising on regulated mortgage contracts, as it involves the provision of information
In the scenarios identified inPERG 4.6.23G (3)1 andPERG 4.6.24G (2)1, the FCA considers that it is necessary to look at the process and outcome of scripted questioning as a whole. It may be that the element of advice incorporated in the questioning may properly be viewed as generic advice if it were considered in isolation. But, although the actual advice may be generic, the process has ended in identifying one or more particular regulated mortgage contracts. The combination of
2Further examples of what is and is not regulated advice
This table belongs to PERG 4.6.33 G.
Example of what lender says and does |
Regulated or not? |
(1) The firm says “We have a wide range of mortgages, including fixed and variable rates. Here are some leaflets which set out the main features.” |
No. Leaflets that just explain the terms and conditions of a lender’s products are not advice (see PERG 4.6.15G (1)). Even if the leaflet contains promotional material, merely handing over the leaflet does not mean that the firm is giving advice. |
(2) The firm says “We have a wide range of mortgages, our best rates are two-year fixed rates, you might want to look at those.” |
Yes. The firm has identified specific products that it offers and is steering the customer to those products. Identifying which products have the lowest rates is not advice on its own, only facts. However, “best” involves a value judgment, particularly when a comparison is made with other products that have different periods for which interest is fixed or that have variable interest rates. |
(3) The firm says “In order to provide you with an illustration, I need to know how much you want to borrow, the term and the property value. Which product or products would you like an illustration for?” |
No. The firm is collecting factual information to provide the customer with an illustration of costs. |
(4) The firm says “Based on what you’ve told me I think you would be best to look at two-year fixed rates. Here is some information about our products.” |
Yes. The firm has made a judgment on what type of product is best for the customer and has identified specific products of that type that it offers. |
(5) The firm says “Our fixed rates start at 4.99% for two years with a £900 fee. Our variable rates start at 4.50% with a £800 fee. Depending on how much you want to borrow and your circumstances, this may affect the rate available to you.” |
No. The firm is comparing two products without recommending either, nor is the firm steering the customer to one over the other. |
(6) A lender with just one mortgage product advises a customer to take out that mortgage. The lender makes it clear that it does not give advice about products other than its own. |
Yes. The lender may argue that this is not regulated advice because it is not recommending one product over another as it only has one product itself and does not give advice about the products of other lenders. However, in the FCA's view this is still regulated advice. For advice to be regulated it must be advice on the merits of entering into a particular regulated mortgage contract (or varying one). It is possible to give advice about the merits of a product without comparing that product with another. |
Note: Unless otherwise specified, the firm might be the lender or an advisory or intermediary firm. |
|
The activity in article 25(1) is carried on only if the arrangements bring about, or would bring about, the transaction to which the arrangement relates. This is because of the exclusion in article 26 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arrangements not causing a deal). Article 26 excludes from article 25(1) arrangements which do not bring about or would not bring about the transaction to which the arrangements relate. In the FCA's view, a person would bring about a contract of
Article 25(2) may, for instance, include activities of persons who help potential policyholders fill in or check application forms in the context of ongoing arrangements between these persons and insurance undertakings. A further example of this activity would be a person introducing customers to an intermediary either for advice or to help arrange an insurance policy. The introduction might be oral or written. By contrast, the FCA considers that a mere passive display of literature
In the FCA's view, 'incidental' in this context means that the activity must arise out of, be complementary to or otherwise be sufficiently closely connected with the profession or business. In other words, there must be an inherent link between the activity and the firm's main business. For example, introducing dental insurance may be incidental to a dentist's activities; introducing pet insurance would not be incidental to his activities. In addition, to be considered 'incidental',
This exclusion applies to a person whose profession or business does not otherwise consist of regulated activities. In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business consists of regulated activities. This is provided that the main focus of the profession or business does not involve regulated activities and that the regulated activities
In the FCA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion in article 27 is the inclusion of the word 'merely'. When a publisher, broadcaster or internet website operator goes beyond what is necessary for him to provide his service of publishing, broadcasting or otherwise facilitating the issue of promotions, he may well bring himself within the scope of article 25(2). Further detailed guidance relating to the scope of the exclusion in article 27 is contained in PERG 2.8.6G (2) (Arranging
The restriction in the scope of article 28 raises an issue where there is a trust with co-trustees, where each trustee will be a policyholder with equal rights and obligations. If the activities of one of the trustees include arranging in respect of contracts of insurance, that trustee could be viewed as arranging on behalf of his co-trustees who will also be policyholders. Similar issues also arise in respect of trustees assisting in the administration and performance of a contract
The effect of PERG 5.6.17G (4) is that some persons who, in making introductions, are making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order, cannot use the introducing exclusion. This is if, in general terms, the arrangements for making introductions relate to contracts of insurance (PERG 5.6.19 G has further guidance on when arrangements for introductions may be regarded as relating to contracts of insurance). However,
Where a person is making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments by way of making introductions, and he is not completely indifferent to whether or not transactions may result, it may still be the case that the exclusion in article 33 will apply. In the FCA's view, this is where:(1) the introduction is for independent advice on investments generally; and(2) the introducer is indifferent as to whether or not a contract of insurance may ultimately be bought (or
In the FCA's view, the matters identified in PERG 8.10.2 G mean that:(1) for a communication to be real time it must be made in course of an interactive dialogue; but that(2) if the interactive dialogue takes place by means of the exchange of letters or e-mails or in a publication, the communication will be deemed to be non-real time. In this case, publications include newspapers, journals, magazines or other periodical publications, websites or similar systems for the electronic
The words ‘personal visit, telephone conversation or other interactive dialogue’ clearly imply that the first two are types of the third. In the FCA's view, it is difficult to envisage circumstances in which a personal visit or telephone conversation would not be interactive. The very fact of a conversation taking place would mean two or more persons were interacting with each other. A telephone call is not the same thing as a conversation. It may be made to, or even by, an intelligent
In the FCA's view, the fact that scope for interaction is essential if a financial promotion is to be real time leads to the following conclusions.(1) Most communications made in written or pictorial form will not offer scope for interaction. The most likely exception to this is where persons are expected to respond immediately. This situation may arise, for example, where the equivalent of a telephone conversation is conducted by e-mail. This is the basis of the exemption in
In the FCA's view, a communication which may exist in enduring form will be a non-real time communication. Examples of this include videos, audio cassettes, bulletin boards, websites and recorded telephone messages. Messages placed on Internet chat-rooms will also be non-real time. Radio or television programmes or teletext services may contain communications that involve an interactive dialogue. For example, a communication made by the broadcaster and addressed to an interviewee
PERG 8.6.9 G explains that article 6 of the Financial Promotion Order has the broad effect that a communication is made to another person where it is addressed to a particular person or persons. It also states that a ‘recipient’ of a communication is the person or persons to who it is made (that is to whom it is addressed). This takes on importance where certain exemptions which apply to real time financial promotions made to a person are concerned. It appears to the FCA that,
In the FCA's view, persons who may be engaging in investment activity jointly include:(1) a married couple;(2) two or more persons, who will invest jointly in a product (for example, a cohabiting couple who are not married or members of a family);(3) the directors of a company or partners in a firm;(4) members of a group of companies;(5) the participants in a joint commercial enterprise;(6) the members of an investment club; and(7) the managers or prospective managers of a company
In the FCA's view, the mere fact of a person accepting an invitation to attend a meeting does not automatically mean that he has initiated any dialogue which may take place during the meeting and which may amount to a financial promotion. This will depend on the facts of each case and such matters as the manner in which the invitations are made, the arrangements for acceptance and how the meeting is conducted. For example, the fact that investments or investment services will
An applicant must submit, in final form, to the FCA by midday two business days before the FCA is to consider the application:1(1) a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List;(2) either:(a) the prospectus, or listing particulars that has been approved by the FCA; or(b) a copy of the prospectus, a certificate of approval and (if applicable) a translation of the summary of the prospectus, if another EEA State is the home Member State for the securities;1(3)
11If confirmation of the number of securities to be issued pursuant to a board resolution cannot be submitted to the FCA by the deadline set out in LR 3.4.4 R or, the number of securities to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.4.4 R, written confirmation of the number of securities to be issued or admitted must be provided to the FCA by the applicant at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.
An applicant must comply with LR 3.4.4 R to LR 3.4.6 R with the following modifications:1(1) [deleted]11(2) if the FCA approves the application it will admit to listing all debt securities which may be issued under the programme within 12 months after the publication of the base prospectus or listing particulars subject to the FCA:(a) being advised of the final terms of each issue for which a listing is sought; and1(b) receiving and approving for publication any supplementary
(1) The final terms must be submitted in writing to the FCA as soon as possible after they have been agreed and no later than 2 p.m. on the day before listing is to become effective.(2) The final terms may be submitted by:(a) the applicant; or(b) a duly authorised officer of the applicant.11(3) [deleted]11Note: For further details on final terms, see PR 2.2.9 R.1
A public sector issuer that seeks admission of debt securities referred to in paragraphs 2 and 4 of Schedule 11A of the Act must submit to the FCA in final form a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List.Note: The Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List form can be found on the UKLA section of the FCA's website.1
1The FCA will treat a firm as
acting in accordance with SUP 17.2.1 R in circumstances where the firm enters
into a transaction with another person in the course of providing a service
of portfolio management on
behalf of one or more clients, provided it:(1) enters into the transaction in
the exercise of a discretion conferred on it by an investment mandate or does
so having specifically recommended the transaction to
its client;(2) has reasonable grounds to be satisfied
that the
1The FCA will expect a firm which
seeks to rely upon the waiver in SUP 17.2.3 R to take reasonable steps
to verify that transaction reports
will be made in accordance with the standards laid down in this chapter and
in particular should ascertain and remain satisfied that:(1) the provider of the transaction reporting facility maintains
an automated reporting system which the firm is
able to access through the efficient inputting of transactions into
the system;(2) the terms of
(1) 21The operator of , an approved
reporting mechanism2, or the operator of an MTF or a market
operator through whose systems a reportable transaction is
to be completed and which has, pursuant to SUP 17.2.3 R,
agreed to make transactionreports2 to the FCA on behalf of a firm,
must:2(a) make reports to the FCA in respect of each to which
the agreement relates;2(b) ensure such reports 2contain the reporting fields
specified in SUP
17 Annex 1, where applicable; and2(c) ensure
The guidance in COND 2 explains each FCA1threshold condition in Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and indicates1 how the FCA1 will interpret it in practice. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FCA1 under section 55B (The threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FCA1 must ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions
(1) The FCA1 will consider whether a firm satisfies, and will continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions in the context of the size, nature, scale and complexity of the business which the firm carries on or will carry on if the relevant application is granted.1(2) In relation to threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2D to 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect of firms which are not PRA-authorised persons and paragraphs 3C to 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect
Although the FCA1 may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FCA1, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the FCA1threshold conditions. The FCA1 will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to its statutory objectives1. A firm should disclose each relevant matter but, if it
1In determining the weight to be given to any relevant matter, the FCA will consider its significance in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, in the context of its ability to supervise the firm adequately, having regard to the FCA'sstatutory objectives. In this context, a series of matters may be significant when taken together, even though each of them in isolation might not give serious cause for concern.
1When assessing the FCAthreshold conditions, the FCA may have regard to any person appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 55R of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant). For example, a firm'scontrollers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the FCAthreshold
(1) For ease of reference, the FCA1threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (1A) 1Paragraphs 2A and 3A of Schedule 6 of the Act have not been quoted. These set out the application of the FCAthreshold conditions to firms which do not carry on, or are not seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity and firms which carry on, or are seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity respectively. This application is summarised in COND
3For
the purpose of this Statement of Principle,
regulators in addition to the FCA and
the PRA are those which have
recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated
activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with his accountable function or (in the case of
an individual performing an accountable significant-influence
function) in connection with the business for which he is responsible.
This may include an exchange or an overseas
r
Failing
to report promptly in accordance with his firm's internal
procedures (or if none exist direct to the regulator concerned),3 information which it would be
reasonable to assume would be of material significance to theregulator concerned,3 whether in response to questions
or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 E. The
regulator concerned is:33(1) the FCA if
it would be reasonable to assume that it would be of material significance
to it;3(2) the PRA if
it would be reasonable
There
is no duty on an approved person to
report such information directly to the regulator concerned3 unless he is one of the approved persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned.3 However, if an approved
person takes steps to influence the decision so as not to report
to the regulator concerned3 or acts in a way that is intended to
obstruct the reporting of the information to the regulator concerned,3 then the appropriate
regulator3 will,
In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.4 E complies with Statement of Principle 4,
the following are factors which, in the opinion of the appropriate
regulator,3 are to be taken into account:3(1) the
likely significance to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4 E)3 of the information which it was
reasonable for the individual to assume;3(2) whether
the information related to the individual himself or to his firm;(3) whether
any decision
In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.7 E complies with Statement of Principle 4,3 the following are factors which, in
the opinion of the appropriate
regulator,3 are to be taken into account:3(1) the
likely significance of the information to the regulator concerned (as defined
in APER 4.4.4 E)3 which it was reasonable for the approved person to assume;(2) whether
any decision not to inform the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4 E)3
GENPRU 3.1.26 R to GENPRU 3.1.31 R and GENPRU 3 Annex 1 implement the detailed capital adequacy requirements of the Financial Groups Directive. They only deal with a financial conglomerate for which the appropriate regulator is the coordinator. If another competent authority is coordinator of a financial conglomerate, those rules do not apply with respect to that financial conglomerate and instead that coordinator will be responsible for implementing those detailed requireme
Paragraph 5.7 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 (Capital adequacy calculations for financial conglomerates) deals with a case in which there are no capital ties between entities in a financial conglomerate. In particular, the appropriate regulator, after consultation with the other relevant competent authorities and in accordance with Annex I of the Financial Groups Directive, will determine which proportional share of a solvency deficit in such an entity will have to be taken into account,
The5 Annex I method to be applied may be5 decided by the coordinator after consultation with the relevant competent authorities and the financial conglomerate itself. Where the appropriate regulator acts as coordinator, the financial conglomerate itself may choose which of Method 1 or Method 2 from Annex I it will apply, unless the firm is subject to a requirement obliging the firm to apply a particular method.555
5GENPRU 3.1.29 R applies to a firm with respect to the financial conglomerate of which it is a member if notification has been made in accordance with regulation 2 of the Financial Groups Directive Regulations that the financial conglomerate is a financial conglomerate and that the appropriate regulator is coordinator of that financial conglomerate.
If GENPRU 3.1.29 R (application of Method 1 or 2 from Annex I of the Financial Groups Directive) applies to a firm with respect to the financial conglomerate of which it is a member, then with respect to the firm and the financial conglomerate:5(1) the definitions of conglomerate capital resources and conglomerate capital resources requirement that apply for the purposes of that rule are the ones from whichever of Part 1 or Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 1 the firm has indicated to
Articles 7(3) (Risk concentration) and 8(3) (Intra-group transactions) and Annex II (Technical application of the provisions on intra-group transactions and risk concentration) of the Financial Groups Directive say that Member States may apply at the level of the financial conglomerate the provisions of the sectoral rules on risk concentrations and intra-group transactions. GENPRU 3.1 does not take up that option, although the appropriate regulator may impose such obligations
(1) In accordance with Articles5 30 and 30a5 of the Financial Groups Directive (Asset management companies and Alternative investment fund managers5), this rule deals with the inclusion of an asset management company or an alternative investment fund manager5 that is a member of a financial conglomerate in the scope of regulation of financial conglomerates.55(2) An asset management company or an alternative investment fund manager5 is in the overall financial sector and is
Therefore, if a person's job for a firm involves:(1) an FCA controlled function, the firm should apply to the FCA for approval;(2) a PRA controlled function, the firm should apply to the PRA for approval;(3) both an FCA controlled function and a PRA controlled function, the firm should apply to both the FCA and the PRA for approval (the purpose of SUP 10A.11 is to cut down the need for this sort of dual approval).
SUP 10A.11 disapplies the apportionment and oversight function for a person who is the subject of an application for approval to perform a PRA governing function, subject to certain conditions set out in SUP 10A.11.11 R. Where this is the case the apportionment and oversight function is included in the PRA governing function for which the person has approval. SUP 10B.7 of the PRA'sHandbook deals with this.
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information it gives to the appropriate regulator9 in accordance with a rule in any part of the Handbook (including Principle 11) is:9(1) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgments, fairly and properly based after appropriate enquiries have been made by the firm; and(2) complete, in that it should include anything of which the appropriate regulator9 would reasonably expect notice.9
SUP 15.6.1 R applies also in relation to rules outside this chapter, and even if they are not notification rules. Examples of rules and chapters to which SUP 15.6.1 R is relevant, are:(1) Principle 11, and the guidance on Principle 11 in SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA and PRA99 on their9 own initiative);9(2) SUP 15 (Notifications to the appropriate regulator):99(3) SUP 16 (Reporting requirements); (4) SUP 17 (Transaction reporting); 1(5) any notification rule (see Schedule
If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the appropriate regulator9 with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the appropriate regulator9 immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:99(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA:9 residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the appropriate regulator9 with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the appropriate regulator's9rules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a key individual, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FCA.3 [Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]3
(1) Key individuals include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a key individual.(2) A key individual need not be an employee of a
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his date of birth;(3) where applicable, a description of the responsibilities which he will have in the post to which he is to be appointed or elected, including for a UK RIE which operates an RAP where the person has responsibilities both in the UK RIE and RAP, a description of the responsibilities he has in respect of each body.3[Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give the FCA3 the following information:33(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FCA.333
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G8
8Question |
Variation of Part 4A permission |
Cancellation of Part 4A permission |
Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission. |
A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it. |
Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
If a firm: 1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or 2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled). |
A listed company must inform the FCA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(1) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listedequity shares5 to trading; or5(2) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listedequity shares;5 or(3) been informed by a RIE that trading of any of its listedequity shares5 will be cancelled or suspended.5
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FCA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
In the FCA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FCA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FCA's view, there is no realisation of value where
The most typical means of realising BC's shares or securities will be by their being redeemed or repurchased, whether by BC or otherwise. There are, of course, other ways in which a realisation may occur. However, the FCA considers that these will often not satisfy all the elements of the definition of an open-ended investment company considered together. For example, the mere fact that shares or securities may be realised on a market will not meet the requirements of the 'satisfaction
An investor in a body corporate may be able to realise part, but not all, of his investment. The FCA considers that the fact that partial realisations may take place at different times does not prevent the body corporate coming within the definition of an open-ended investment company. But, in any particular case, the 'expectation test' will only be met if the overall period for realising the whole of the investment can be considered to be reasonable. Apart from this, the simple
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FCA considers that a reasonable investor
In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
As indicated in PERG 9.3.5 G (The definition), the potential for variation in the form and operation of a body corporate is considerable. So, it is only possible in general guidance to give examples of the factors that the FCA considers may affect any particular judgment. These should be read bearing in mind any specific points considered elsewhere in the guidance. Such factors include:(1) the terms of the body corporate's constitution;(2) the applicable law;(3) any public representations
Examples of when the FCA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 25% or such lower percentage as the FCA may permit (the FCA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage,
Subject to 41LR 5.2.7 R, LR 5.2.10 R and LR 5.2.12 R, 1an issuer with a premium listing4that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of any of its 5equity shares1with a premium listing4must:1114(1) send a circular to the holders of the securities. The circular must:(a) comply with the requirements of LR 13.3.1 R and LR 13.3.2 R (contents of all circulars);(b) be submitted to the FCA for approval prior to publication; and(c) include the anticipated date of cancellation (which must
An issuer that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of listed securities (other than equity shares1with a premium listing41) must notify a RIS, giving at least 20 business days notice of the intended cancellation but is not required to obtain the approval of the holders of those securities contemplated in LR 5.2.5 R (2).1544
6In determining whether the statutory winding up or reconstruction measures in relation to an overseasissuer under equivalent overseas legislation have a similar effect to those set out in LR 5.2.12R (1) to LR 5.2.12R (6), the FCA will in particular have regard to whether those procedures require a court order, the approval of 75% of the shareholders entitled to vote on the resolution, or a formal declaration of the overseasissuer's insolvency or inability to pay its debts.
(1) 1Where, in accordance with DISP 1.10.1 R, a firm submits a report to the
FCA
reporting 500 or more complaints, it must publish a summary of the complaints data contained in that report (the complaints data summary).(2) Where, in accordance with DISP 1.10.1C R, a firm submits a joint report on behalf of itself and other firms within a group and that report reports 500 or more complaints, it must publish a summary of the complaints data contained in the joint report (the complaints
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
The FCA5 will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.35333
Where an ROIE1 includes in its report made under section 295(1) of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) a statement in compliance with section 295(2)(a) of the Act that an event has occurred in the period covered by that report which is likely to affect the FCA's1 assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the requirements set out in section 292(3) (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), it must include particulars
An ROIE1 must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that ROIE1 is made: 11(1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after the application for recognition
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
A UK firm other than a UK pure reinsurer9cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraph13 19 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:1313(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with
4If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to establish a branch has not notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to establish a branch in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, SUP 13.3.2 G (2) and SUP 13.3.2 G (3) do not apply. Accordingly, the UK firm may establish the branch to which its notice of intention8 relates as soon
4An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FCA20 under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).20
(1) 8If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Banking Consolidation Directive or10MiFID8,10 the appropriate UK regulator20 will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure.8 The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice, except where paragraph 19(7A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act applies. Where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) If the appropriate UK regulator20 gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.20(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details or, 8if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the relevant EEA details8 (see SUP 13 Annex 18) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention8 (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).8888(3) 10Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FCA20