Related provisions for PERG 6.4.3

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REC 2A.4.1GRP
1Under regulation 5A (Power to impose civil penalties) of the RAP Regulations, where the FCA2 considers that an RAP has contravened any requirement in articles 19, 20(7), 21(1) or (2), or 54 of the auction regulation, the FCA2 has the power to impose a civil penalty on that RAP. 22
REC 2A.4.2GRP
Where the FCA2 is entitled to impose a penalty on an RAP, it may instead publish a statement censuring it.2
REC 2A.4.4GRP
The power in regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations to impose a civil penalty or publish a statement adds to the FCA's2 other supervisory powers in relation to RAPs (see REC 4) and its power to impose penalties on an RAP under the Money Laundering Regulations. The FCA2 will use this power under the RAP Regulations where it is appropriate to do so and with regard to the relevant factors listed in DEPP 6.2.1 G. In deciding between a civil penalty or a public statement, the FCA2 will
REC 2A.4.5GRP
The FCA2 will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed officers to carry out an investigation under either or both the RAP Regulations or the Money Laundering Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA2 expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process in most cases.22
REC 2A.4.6GRP
Where the FCA2 uses the power to impose a penalty, it will be for an amount that is effective, proportionate and dissuasive and with regard to relevant factors listed in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D in determining the appropriate level of financial penalty.2
REC 2A.4.7GRP
The FCA2 will also have regard to whether the person followed any of the FCA's2 guidance and will not take action under regulation 5A where there are reasonable grounds for it to be satisfied that the person took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the requirement was complied with.22
REC 2A.4.8GRP
When the FCA2 proposes or decides to take action against an RAP in exercise of its power in regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations, it must give the RAP a warning notice or a decision notice respectively. Those notices must state the amount of the penalty or set out the terms of the statement, as applicable. On receiving a warning notice, the RAP has a right to make representations on the FCA's2 proposed decision.22
REC 2A.4.9GRP
Where the FCA2 is proposing or deciding to publish a statement censuring an RAP or impose a penalty on the RAP under regulation 5A of the RAP Regulations, the FCA's2 decision maker will be the RDC. This is to ensure that the FCA's2 power to censure or impose a penalty on an RAP has the same layer of separation in the decision making process, and is exercised consistently with, similar penalty and censure powers of the FCA2 under other legislation. The RDC will make its decisions
REC 2A.4.10GRP
Sections 393 and 394 of the Act apply to notices referred to in this section. See DEPP 2.4 (Third party rights and access to FCA2 material).2
REC 2A.4.11GRP
As with cases under the Act, the FCA2 may settle or mediate appropriate cases to assist it to exercise its functions in the most efficient and economic way. The settlement discount scheme set out in DEPP 6.7 applies to penalties imposed under the RAP Regulations.2
REC 2A.4.12GRP
The FCA2 will apply the approach to publicity that it has outlined in EG 6.2
SUP 16.3.8RRP
A written report must be delivered to the appropriate regulator49 by one of the methods listed in SUP 16.3.9 R.2249
SUP 16.3.9RRP

Method of submission of reports (see SUP 16.3.8 R)

228

Method of delivery

1.

Post to the published address of the FCA49 for postal submission of reports

49

2.

Leaving the report marked for the attention of "Central Reporting"22 at the published address of the FCA49 for hand delivery of reports and obtaining a dated receipt

49

3.

Electronic mail or fax to the published e-mail address or fax number of the FCA's49 Central Reporting team.22

2249

4.22

Online submission via the appropriate systems accessible from the22appropriate regulator's49 website

49822
SUP 16.3.10GRP
  1. (1)

    The current published address of the FCA49 for postal submission of reports is:

    49

    Central Reporting22

    The Financial Conduct49 Authority

    49

    PO BOX 35747

    London E14 5WP

  2. (2)

    The current published address of the FCA49 for hand delivery of reports is:

    49
    1. (a)

      Central Reporting22

      The Financial Conduct49Authority

      49

      25 The North Colonnade

      Canary Wharf

      London E14 5HS

      if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator49 is based in London, or:

      49
    2. (b)

      The Financial Conduct49Authority

      49

      Quayside House

      127 Fountainbridge

      Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

      if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA49 is based in Edinburgh.2

      49
  3. (3)

    22The current published email address and fax number for the FCA's49 Central Reporting team is regulatory.reports@fca.org.uk49 and 020 7066 3905. The Central Reporting team does not handle general correspondence between firms and the appropriate regulator49. Accordingly, firms should not make submissions to the Central Reporting team's email address or fax number other than as directed in SUP 16.3.8 R.

    4949
SUP 16.3.11RRP
A firm must submit reports required under this chapter to the appropriate regulator49 containing all the information required.49
SUP 16.3.12GRP
SUP 15.6 refers to and contains requirements regarding the steps that firms must take to ensure that information provided to the appropriate regulator49 is accurate and complete. Those requirements apply to reports required to be submitted under this chapter.49
SUP 16.3.13RRP
(1) A firm must submit a report required by this chapter in the frequency, and so as to be received by the appropriate regulator49 no later than the due date, specified for that report.49(2) If the due date for submission of a report required by this chapter falls on a day which is not a business day, the report must be submitted so as to be received by the appropriate regulator49 no later than the first business day after the due date. 49(3) If the due date for submission of
SUP 16.3.14AGRP
9Failure to submit a report in accordance with the rules in, or referred to in,12 this chapter or the provisions of relevant legislation12 may also lead to the imposition of a financial penalty and other disciplinary sanctions. A firm may be subject to reporting requirements under relevant legislation other than the Act, not referred to in this chapter. An example of this is reporting to the appropriate regulator49 by building societies under those parts of the Building Societies
SUP 16.3.15GRP
The appropriate regulator may from time to time send reminders to firms when reports are overdue. Firms should not, however, assume that the appropriate regulator49 has received a report merely because they have not received a reminder.14949
SUP 16.3.16GRP
The firm is responsible for ensuring delivery of the required report at the by the due date. If a report is received by the appropriate regulator49after the due date and the firm believes its delivery arrangements were adequate, it may be required to provide proof of those arrangements. Examples of such proof would be:4949(1) "proof of posting" receipts from a UK post office or overseas equivalent which demonstrates that the report was posted early enough to allow delivery by
SUP 16.3.17RRP
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator49if it changes its accounting reference date.49(2) When a firm extends its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the previous accounting reference date.(3) When a firm shortens its accounting period, it must make the notification in (1) before the new accounting reference date.4(4) SUP 16.10.4A R to SUP 16.10.4C G (Requirement to check the accuracy of standing data and to report changes to the appropriate
SUP 16.3.18GRP
SUP 16.2.1 G emphasises the importance to the appropriate regulator49 of timely and accurate information. The extension of a firm's accounting period to more than 15 months may hinder the timely provision of relevant and important information to the appropriate regulator49. This is because many due dates for reporting to the appropriate regulator49 are linked to firms'accounting reference dates. Indeed, for some categories of firm, the only reports required by the appropriate
SUP 16.3.19GRP
If more than one firm in a group intends to change its accounting reference date at the same time, a single notification may be given to the appropriate regulator49, as described in SUP 15.7.8 G.49
SUP 16.3.22GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the appropriate regulator49. They do not apply to reports required under SUP 16, because of the specific rules in this section.49
SUP 16.3.23GRP
When the appropriate regulator49 receives a report which contains confidential information and whose submission is required under this chapter, it is obliged under Part 2349of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. (See SUP 2.2.4 G for the FCA and SUP 2.2.4A G for the PRA49) 4949
SUP 16.3.24GRP
SUP 2.3.12A G and SUP 2.3.12B G state that the appropriate regulator49 may pass to other regulators information which it has in its possession. Such information includes information contained in reports submitted under this chapter. The appropriate regulator's49 disclosure of information to other regulators is subject to SUP 2.2.4 G or SUP 2.2.4A G49 (Confidentiality of information).4949
SUP 5.3.1GRP
The appointment of a skilled person to produce a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) is one of the appropriate regulator's6 regulatory tools. The tool may be used:6(1) for diagnostic purposes, to identify, assess and measure risks; (2) for monitoring purposes, to track the development of identified risks, wherever these arise;(3) in the context of preventative action, to limit or reduce identified risks and so prevent them from crystallising or increasing;
SUP 5.3.2GRP
The decision by the appropriate regulator6 to require a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) 6will normally be prompted by a specific requirement for information, analysis of information, assessment of a situation,4 expert advice or recommendations or by a decision to seek assurance in relation to a regulatory return4. It may4 be part of the risk mitigation programme applicable to a firm, or the result of an event or development
SUP 5.3.2AGRP
6The decision by the appropriate regulator to require the collection or updating of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) will be prompted where the appropriate regulator considers there has been a breach of a requirement by a firm to collect, and keep up to date, information of a description specified in the appropriate regulator'srules.
SUP 5.3.3GRP
When making the decision to require a report by a skilled person under section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or the collection or updating of information by a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, the appropriate regulator6 will have regard, on a case-by-case basis, to all relevant factors. Those are likely to include:6(1) circumstances relating to the firm;(2) alternative tools available, including other
SUP 5.3.4GRP
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:6(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the appropriate regulator6 has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;6(4) objectivity: whether
SUP 5.3.5GRP
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:6(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit bystaff of the appropriate regulator6or a request for information on an informal basis); 6(2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Power6 to require information);6(3) appointing investigators
SUP 5.3.6GRP
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to legal and procedural considerations including:6(1) statutory powers: whether one of the other available statutory powers is more appropriate for the purpose than the power in section 166 (Reports by skilled persons) or section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;66(2) subsequent proceedings: whether it is desirable to obtain an authoritative and independent report for use in any subsequent
SUP 5.3.7GRP
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to the objectives of its enquiries, and the relative effectiveness of its available powers to achieve those objectives. For example:6(1) historic information or evidence: if the objectives are limited to gathering historic information, or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the appropriate regulator's information gathering and investigation powers under sections 165 (Power to require information),
SUP 5.3.8GRP
In accordance with its general policy the appropriate regulator6 will have regard to the question of cost, which is particularly pertinent in relation to skilled persons because:6(1) if the appropriate regulator6 uses the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), either 6the firm will appoint, and will have to pay for the services of, the skilled person, or the appropriate regulator
SUP 5.3.9GRP
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) or the section 166A power (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) 6alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the appropriate regulator6will take into account relevant factors, including:6(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding
SUP 5.3.10GRP
The appropriate regulator6 will have regard to appropriate regulator6-related considerations including:66(1) appropriate regulator6expertise: whether the appropriate regulator6has the necessary expertise; and66(2) appropriate regulator6resources: whether the resources required to produce a report or to make enquiries or to appoint a skilled person itself6 are available within the appropriate regulator6, or whether the exercise will be the best use of the appropriate regulator's6
RCB 3.2.1DRP
The issuer must send to the FCA annual written confirmation of compliance with Regulations 16 (sums derived from the issue of regulated covered bonds) and 17 (general requirements on the issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations in the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 1D (annual confirmation of compliance).
RCB 3.2.3GRP
The FCA expects the issuer to be able to justify any reliance it places on advice or reports which are not reasonably contemporaneous with the confirmation.
RCB 3.2.4GRP
The FCA expects the asset pool monitor's report1 to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA may also specify additional matters that the asset pool monitor's report should address in relation to a particular issuer.11
RCB 3.2.4AGRP
1The FCA's use of its power under Regulation 18 of the RCB Regulations may include requiring the issuer to provide to the FCA copies of the advice or reports referred to in RCB 3.2.2 D.
RCB 3.2.4BDRP
1The issuer must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA when it sends the confirmation required by this section to the FCA.
RCB 3.2.6DRP
The issuer must send each confirmation to the FCA within one month after the relevant confirmation date.
RCB 3.2.9DRP
The issuer must ensure that a director or1 a senior manager signs the annual confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the issuer has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.
RCB 3.2.9AGRP
1Where possible, the director or senior manager who signs the annual confirmation should be the same director or senior manager who has verified the application for registration under RCB 2.2.6 D. If the director or senior manager is different to the director or senior manager who verified the application for registration, the issuer should notify the FCA at least one month before sending the confirmation to the FCA.
RCB 3.2.10DRP
If the issuer is in insolvency, the owner must send the FCA under RCB 3.2.1 D:(1) a confirmation of compliance within one month of the date of insolvency; and(2) annual confirmations by the same dates as the date the confirmations under RCB 3.2.5 D are due.
RCB 3.2.11DRP
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D and must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA as set out in RCB 3.2.4B D.1
RCB 3.2.13GRP
1The FCA expects the inspection by the asset pool monitor of the compliance of the issuer or owner (as the case may be) with the relevant requirements in the RCB Regulations to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA expects that the inspection will be conducted on an agreed-upon-procedures basis.
RCB 3.2.14GRP
1As required under Regulation 17A of the RCB Regulations, if it appears to the asset pool monitor that the issuer or owner (as the case may be) has failed to comply with the requirements set out in Regulations 17 or 24 of the RCB Regulations, or has not provided all relevant information or explanations, the asset pool monitor must report that to the FCA in writing as soon as possible.
RCB 3.2.15GRP
1If the asset pool monitor is changed, the issuer (or owner, as the case may be) should notify the FCA when the new asset pool monitor is appointed, giving the name of the new asset pool monitor and details of the reason for the change.
SUP 5.4.1GRP
Where the appropriate regulator requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the appropriate regulator2 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions
SUP 5.4.1AGRP
2Where the appropriate regulator requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the appropriate regulator will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the appropriate regulator's appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
SUP 5.4.2GRP
As part of the decision making process the appropriate regulator2 will normally contact the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 to discuss its needs before finalising its decision to require a report or the updating or collection of information by a skilled person. This will provide an opportunity for discussion about the appointment, whether an alternative means of obtaining the information would be better, what the scope of a report should be, who should be appointed,
SUP 5.4.3GRP
The appropriate regulator2 will give written notification to the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 of the purpose of the report or collection or updating of information,2 its scope, the timetable for completion and any other relevant matters. The appropriate regulator2 will state the matters which the report is to contain, or the information which is to be collected or updated,2 as well as any requirements as to the report's format. For example, a report on controls may
SUP 5.4.4GRP
The written notification in SUP 5.4.3 G may be preceded or followed by a discussion of the appropriate regulator's2 requirements and the reasons for them. This may involve the appropriate regulator,2 the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or in SUP 5.2.2 G2 and the person who has been, or is expected to be, appointed as the skilled person. The appropriate regulator2 recognises that there will normally be value in holding discussions involving the skilled person at this stage. These discussions
SUP 5.4.5GRP
The appropriate regulator2 will wish to conduct the discussion with the firm, its skilled person and any others within a timescale appropriate to the circumstances of the case.2
SUP 5.4.7GRP
A skilled person must appear to the appropriate regulator2 to have the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information.2 A skilled person may be an accountant, lawyer, compliance consultant,2actuary or person with relevant business, technical or technological skills.2
SUP 5.4.8GRP
When considering whether to nominate, approve or appoint a skilled person to make a report or collect or update information, the appropriate regulator will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilled person appears to have:22(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information;2(2) the ability to complete the report or collect or update the information within the time expected by
SUP 5.4.9GRP
In appropriate circumstances, it may be cost effective for the appropriate regulator2 to nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint itself,2 a skilled person who has previously acted for, or advised, the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.2 For example, the appropriate regulator2 may nominate or approve the appointment of, or appoint,2 the auditor of a person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 to prepare a report or collect or update the information2 taking into account,
SUP 5.4.10GRP
Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the appropriate regulator2 will normally require the skilled person to be appointed to report to the appropriate regulator2 through that person. In the normal course of events the appropriate regulator2 expects that the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 will be given the opportunity to provide written comments on the report or the collection of the relevant information prior to its submission
SUP 5.4.10AGRP
2Where the skilled person is to be appointed by the appropriate regulator itself, the skilled person will report directly to the appropriate regulator.
SUP 5.4.11GRP
The appropriate regulator2 may enter into a dialogue with the skilled person, and is ready to discuss matters relevant to the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information2 with him, during the preparation of the report or the collection or updating of the relevant information.2 Such discussions may2 involve or be through the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G.222
SUP 5.4.12GRP
The appropriate regulator2 will normally specify a time limit within which it expects the skilled person to deliver the report or collect or update the relevant information. Where the skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the2skilled person should, in complying with its contractual duty under SUP 5.5.1 R, take reasonable steps to achieve delivery by that time. If the skilled person becomes aware that the report may not be delivered, or collection
LR 8.4.1RRP
LR 8.4.2 R to LR 8.4.4 G2 apply in relation to an application for admission of equity shares to premium listing65if an applicant does not have equity shares5already admitted to premium listing and LR 6.1.1 R does not apply because of the operation of LR 6.1.1A R,6and:2556(1) the production of a prospectus or equivalent document1is required; or(2) the application is accompanied by a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or(3) the application is accompanied by
LR 8.4.2RRP
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA an application on behalf of an applicant, in accordance with LR 3, unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:(1) the applicant has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to an application for admission to listing;(2) the applicant has satisfied all applicable requirements set out in the prospectus rules unless the home Member State of the applicant is not, or will not be, the
LR 8.4.3RRP
A sponsor must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration on an Application for Listing to the FCA either:2(a) on the day the FCA is to consider the application for approval of the prospectus and prior to the time the prospectus is approved; or(b) at a time agreed with the FCA, if the FCA is not approving the prospectus or if it is determining whether a document is an equivalent document1;(2) submit a completed Shareholder Statement or Pricing Statement, as applicable, to the
LR 8.4.4GRP
Depending on the circumstances of the case, a sponsor providing services to an applicant on an application for admission to listing may have to confirm in writing to the FCA that the board of the applicant has allotted the equity shares.5 [Note: see LR 3.3.4 R]5
LR 8.4.8RRP
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA an application on behalf of an applicant, in accordance with LR 3 (Listing applications), unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:(1) the applicant has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to an application for admission to listing;(2) the applicant has satisfied all applicable requirements set out in the prospectus rules unless the home Member State of the applicant is
LR 8.4.9RRP
A sponsor must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration on an Application for Listing to the FCA either:(a) on the day the FCA is to consider the application for approval of the prospectus and prior to the time the prospectus is approved; or11(b) at a time agreed with the FCA if the FCA is not approving the prospectus or if it is determining whether a document is an equivalent document1;(2) submit a completed Shareholder Statement or Pricing Statement, as applicable, to the
LR 8.4.10GRP
Depending on the circumstances of the case, a sponsor providing services to an applicant on an application for admission to listing may have to confirm in writing to the FCA the number of equity shares5 to be allotted or admitted1. [Note: see LR 3.31]151
LR 8.4.11RRP
LR 8.4.12 R to LR 8.4.13 R apply in relation to transactions involving an issuer with 5 a premium listing4 of equity shares5that:54(1) is required to produce a class 1 circular; or4(2) is producing a circular that proposes a reconstruction or a re-financing which does not constitute a class 1 transaction; or(3) is producing a circular for the proposed purchase of own shares;(a) which does not constitute a class 1 circular; and(b) is required by LR 13.7.1R (2) to include a working
LR 8.4.12RRP
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA, on behalf of a listed company, an application for approval ofa circular regarding a transaction set out in LR 8.4.11 R, unless the sponsor has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:(1) the listed company has satisfied all requirements of the listing rules relevant to the production of a class 1 circular or other circular;(2) the transaction will not have an adverse impact on the listed company's ability
LR 8.4.13RRP
A sponsor acting on a transaction falling within LR 8.4.11 R must:(1) submit a completed Sponsor's Declaration for the Production of a Circular to the FCA on the day the circular is to be approved by the FCA and prior to the time the circular is approved;(2) submit a completed Pricing Statement, if applicable, to the FCA by 9 a.m on the day the FCA is to consider the application; and(3) ensure that all matters known to it which, in its reasonable opinion, should be taken into
LR 8.4.14RRP
In relation to a proposed transfer under LR 5.4A, if a sponsor is appointed6 in accordance with LR 8.2.1A R, it6 must:6(1) submit a letter to the FCA setting out how the issuer satisfies each listing rule requirement relevant to the category of listing to which it wishes to transfer, by no later than when the first draft of the circular or announcement required under LR 5.4A is submitted;(2) submit a completed Sponsor’s Declaration for a Transfer of Listing7 to the FCA for the
LR 8.4.15RRP
A sponsor must not submit to the FCA on behalf of an issuer a final circular or announcement for approval or a Sponsor’s Declaration for a Transfer of Listing7, unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that:7(1) the issuer satisfies all eligibility requirements of the listing rules that are relevant to the new category to which it is seeking to transfer;(2) the issuer has satisfied all requirements relevant to the production of the
LR 8.4.17RRP
6A sponsor acting on a reverse takeover where the issuer decides to make a disclosure announcement under LR 5.6.15 G must:(1) submit to the FCA under LR 5.6.17 R a completed Sponsor’s Declaration for a Reverse Takeover Announcement7;(2) not submit to the FCA the Sponsor’s Declaration for a Reverse Takeover Announcement7 unless it has come to a reasonable opinion, after having made due and careful enquiry, that it is reasonable for the issuer to provide the declarations described
PERG 6.7.2GRP
The disaster recovery provider sets up and maintains a range of IT and related facilities (PABX etc). The disaster recovery contracts so far considered by the FCA give the recipient, subject to certain conditions including an up front payment, priority access to all or a specified part of these facilities if a 'disaster' causes the failure of a similar business system on which the recipient relies. The provider sells access to the same facilities to a number of different recipients,
PERG 6.7.4GRP
However, the disaster recovery contracts considered by the FCA had two key features.(1) Priority access to facilities in the event of a disaster was expressed to be on a 'first come, first served' basis. The contracts provided expressly that if the facilities needed by recipient A were already in use, following an earlier invocation by recipient B, the provider's obligation to recipient A was reduced to no more than an obligation of 'best endeavours' to meet A's requirements.
PERG 6.7.5GRP
Based on these features, the FCA reached the conclusion, with which the other terms of the contracts were consistent (PERG 6.6.8 G (3)), that these disaster recovery contracts were not contracts of insurance.
PERG 6.7.6GRP
An important part of the conclusion in PERG 6.7.5 G was that, although the provider assumed a risk at the outset of the contract, looking at the contract as a whole and interpreting the common law in the context of the FCA objectives (see PERG 6.5.2 G and PERG 6.5.3 G) there was no relevant assumption of risk.(1) The presence or absence of an assumption of risk is an important part of the statutory rationale for the prudential regulation of insurance.(2) In Medical Defence Union
PERG 6.7.8GRP
Notwithstanding PERG 6.7.7 G, the FCA's view is that an obligation that is of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services is unlikely to be an insurance obligation in substance.
PERG 6.7.9GRP
The FCA is unlikely to classify a contract containing a simple manufacturer's or retailer's warranty as a contract of insurance, if the FCA is satisfied that the warranty does no more that crystallise or recognise obligations that are of the same nature as a seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of the goods or services.
PERG 6.7.11GRP
It follows from PERG 6.7.10 G that the FCA is unlikely to be satisfied that an obligation in a contract of sale or supply is of the same nature as the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services, if that obligation has one or more of the following features:(1) it is assumed by a person other than the seller or supplier (a 'third party'); or(2) it is significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration than a seller's usual obligations
PERG 6.7.12GRP
Other things being equal, the FCA is likely to classify a contract of sale containing a warranty that has one or more of the features in PERG 6.7.11 G as a contract of insurance. The features in PERG 6.7.11 G (1) and (2) typically distinguish a 'third party' warranty and an 'extended warranty' from a 'simple' manufacturer's or retailer's warranty.
PERG 6.7.13GRP
If a warranty is provided by a third party, the FCA will usually treat this as conclusive of the fact that there are different transactions and an assumption or transfer of risk. This conclusion would not usually depend on whether the provider is (or is not) a part of the same group of companies as the manufacturer or retailer. But it will be the third party (who assumes the risk) that is potentially effecting a contract of insurance.
PERG 6.7.14GRP
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake a warranty obligation to his customer in a separate contract with the customer, distinct from the contract of sale or supply of goods or services. The FCA will examine the separate contract to see if it is a contract of insurance. But the mere existence of a separate warranty contract is unlikely to be conclusive by itself.
PERG 6.7.15GRP
A manufacturer or retailer may undertake an obligation to ensure that the customer becomes a party to a separate contract of insurance in respect of the goods sold. This would include, for example, a contract for the sale of a freezer, with a simple warranty in relation to the quality of the freezer, but also providing insurance (underwritten by an insurer and in respect of which the customer is the policyholder) covering loss of frozen food if the freezer fails. The FCA is unlikely
PERG 6.7.16GRP
The FCA distinguishes the contract in PERG 6.7.15 G from a contract under which the manufacturer or retailer assumes the obligation to provide the customer with an indemnity against loss or damage if the freezer fails, but takes out insurance to cover the cost of having to provide the indemnity to the customer. The obligation to indemnify is of a different nature from the seller's or supplier's usual obligations as regards the quality of goods or services and is an insurance obligation.
PERG 6.7.17GRP
The following are examples of typical warranty schemes operated by motor dealers. Provided that, in each case, the FCA is satisfied that the obligations assumed by the dealer are not significantly more extensive in content, scope or duration that a dealer's usual obligations as to the quality of motor vehicles of that kind, the FCA would not usually classify the contracts embodying these transactions as contracts of insurance.(1) The dealer gives a verbal undertaking to the purchaser
PERG 6.7.19GRP
Some providers argued that these schemes amount to nothing more than a 'manufacturer's warranty' of their own work, within the scope of PERG 6.7.7 G (Example 3: manufacturers' and retailers' warranties). However, HM Revenue and Customs is expected to make a significant number of random checks of self-assessment forms, irrespective of the quality of the work done by the provider. These random checks are also covered by the schemes. The FCA concluded, therefore, that these schemes
PERG 6.7.21GRP
If, however, a contract of this kind were structured so that the recipient was charged at a commercial rate for any legal services in fact provided, the FCA's approach will be to treat the arrangement as non-insurance. This is principally because, by taking on obligations of this kind, the provider does not assume a relevant risk (see PERG 6.7.6 G). The position might be different if the solicitor carries the additional obligation to pay for alternative legal services to be provided
REC 5.2.1GRP
An applicant for recognised body status needs to demonstrate to the FCA5 that it is able to meet the recognised body requirements31before a recognition order can be made. Once it has been recognised, a recognised body has to comply with the recognised body requirements31at all times. (Guidance on the recognised body requirements3 applicable to UK recognised bodies (and applicants) is given in REC 2 and REC 2A).35333
REC 5.2.1AGRP
In addition, under section 290A of the Act (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision), the FCA5 must refuse to make a recognition order in relation to a body applying for recognition as a UK RIE if it appears to the FCA5 that an existing or proposed regulatory provision of the applicant in connection with the applicant's business as an investment exchange or the provision by the applicant of clearing facilitation services5 imposes, or will impose, an
REC 5.2.2GRP
(1) There is no standard application form. A prospective applicant should contact the Markets Division at the FCA5 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and practical aspects of its application.5(2) It is very important, if an application is to be processed smoothly and in a reasonable time, that it is comprehensively prepared and based on a well-developed and clear proposal.
REC 5.2.3GRP
An application should:(1) be made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory provisions and in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
REC 5.2.5GRP
A prospective applicant who is an authorised person may wish to consult the FCA5 about the extent to which information which it has already supplied in connection with its status as an authorised person can be used to support an application to become a UK recognised body. 5
REC 5.2.5AGRP
3A UK RIE applying for recognition as an RAP may wish to consult the FCA5 about the extent to which information which it has already supplied in connection with its status as a UK RIE can be used to support an application to be recognised as an RAP.5
REC 5.2.6GRP
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's information technology systems.55
REC 5.2.6AGRP
1In the case of an application to become a UK RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and (for an RAP applicant) regulation 2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
REC 5.2.7GRP
At any time after making a formal application, the applicant may make amendments to its rules, guidance or any other part of its application submitted to the FCA.555
REC 5.2.8GRP
(1) The FCA5 will keep the applicant informed of the progress of the application.5(2) It may be necessary to ask the applicant to clarify or amplify some aspects of its proposals. The FCA5 may wish to discuss various aspects of the application and may invite the applicant to attend one or more meetings for that purpose. When requested to do so, the FCA5 will explain the nature of the information which it has asked an applicant to supply in connection with its application.55
REC 5.2.12GRP
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order it will discuss its concerns with the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G). If the FCA5 decides that it will not make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) or (in the case of an RAP) regulation 5 of
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products4 which it operates or plans to operate.3

54

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks.

5

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5.

5

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached.

5

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

5

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

5

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
SUP 15.8.1RRP
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:20(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
SUP 15.8.2RRP
If a firm begins or ceases to administer individual pension accounts, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.5220
SUP 15.8.3RRP
(1) An insurer must notify the FCA20in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:20(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result
SUP 15.8.4GRP
(1) 467In accordance with article 3111of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 15 December 200711, a firm is required to notify the FCA:20111120(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning11; and(b) immediately11 after it ceases;11to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.1111(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
SUP 15.8.5GRP
467A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provider11 as at 15 December 200711 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FCA20 of that fact and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2) before 15 January 200811.111120
SUP 15.8.6RRP
If a UK UCITS management company intends to delegate to a third party any one or more of its functions for the more efficient conduct of its business, it must first inform the FCA20 in an appropriate manner.141420[Note: article 13(1)(a) of the UCITS Directive]14
SUP 15.8.8RRP
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.20(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFCA,20 as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:20(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs12; and12(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
SUP 15.8.9RRP
10A BIPRUfirm must report to the appropriate regulator20 immediately any case in which its counterparty in a repurchase agreement or reverse repurchase agreement or securities or commodities lending or borrowing transaction defaults on its obligations.20
SUP 15.7.2GRP
A firm should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator7 by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting a written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator.7 An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging
SUP 15.7.3GRP
The appropriate regulator7 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the appropriate regulator7 on its behalf.77
SUP 15.7.4RRP
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator;7 and7(2) delivered to the appropriate regulator7 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5A R or SUP 15.7.5B R as applicable:77
SUP 15.7.5ARRP

7Methods of notification

Method of delivery

1.

Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G

2.

Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt

3.

Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt

4.

Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA

5.

Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification

6.

Online submission via the FCA's website at www.fca.org.uk.
SUP 15.7.6AGRP

7The current published address of the FCA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:

  1. (1)

    The Financial Conduct Authority

    25 The North Colonnade London

    Canary Wharf

    E14 5HS

    if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in London, or

  2. (2)

    The Financial Conduct Authority

    Quayside House 127

    Fountainbridge

    Edinburgh EH3 8DJ

    if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.7

SUP 15.7.7GRP
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the appropriate regulator,7 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator,7 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).77
SUP 15.7.8GRP
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the appropriate regulator7 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the appropriate regulator.7 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.77
SUP 15.7.9GRP
Firms wishing to communicate with the appropriate regulator7 by electronic mail or fax should obtain the appropriate address or number from the FSA7appropriate regulator.77
SUP 15.7.10RRP
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the appropriate regulator7no later than the end of that period; and 7(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the appropriate regulator7 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 7
SUP 15.7.14GRP
The appropriate regulator7 has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the appropriate regulator.7 [For further details see the appropriate regulator's7 website.]777
SUP 15.7.16GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the appropriate regulator.7 They do not apply to notifications required under notification rules because of the specific rules in this section.7
SUP 10A.14.1GRP
An FCA-approved person's job may change from time to time as a result, for instance, of a change in personal job responsibilities or a firm'sregulated activities. Where the changes will involve the person performing one or more FCA controlled functions different from those for which approval has already been granted, then an application must be made to the FCA for approval for the person to perform those FCA controlled functions. The firm must take reasonable care to ensure that
SUP 10A.14.2GRP
If an FCA-approved person or a PRA-approved person is ceasing to perform FCA controlled functions or PRA controlled function, as well as applying for approval in respect of FCA controlled functions, SUP 10A.14.4 D generally applies. Further details can be found in SUP 10A Annex 2.
SUP 10A.14.6GRP
If it is proposed that an FCA-approved person will no longer be performing an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by one firm or one of its contractors, but will be performing the same or a different FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a new firm or one of its contractors (whether or not the new firm is in the same group as the old firm), the new firm will be required to make a fresh application for the performance of the FCA controlled
SUP 10A.14.7GRP
In certain circumstances, when the FCA already has the information it would usually require, a shortened version of the relevant Form A may be completed. See the notes relevant to each form for full details.
SUP 10A.14.8RRP
A firm must submit to the FCA a completed Form C, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 6R, no later than seven business days after an FCA-approved person ceases to perform an FCA controlled function. This does not apply if the firm has already notified the FCA of the proposal to do that using Form E in accordance with this chapter or has notified the PRA of the proposal to do that using the PRA's Form E in accordance with SUP 10B of the PRA's Handbook.
SUP 10A.14.10RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
SUP 10A.14.11GRP
Notification under SUP 10A.14.10 R may be made by telephone, email or fax and should be made, where possible, within one business day of the firm becoming aware of the information. If the firm does not submit Form C, it should inform the FCA in due course of the reason. This could be done using Form D, if appropriate.
SUP 10A.14.12GRP
A firm is responsible for notifying the FCA if any FCA-approved person has ceased to perform an FCA controlled function under an arrangement entered into by its appointed representative or former appointed representative.
SUP 10A.14.13GRP
A firm can submit Form C or Form E to the FCA in advance of the cessation date. When a person ceases the arrangement under which he performs an FCA controlled function, he will automatically cease to be an FCA-approved person in relation to that FCA controlled function. A person can only be an FCA-approved person in relation to a specific FCA controlled function. Therefore, a person is not an FCA-approved person during any period between ceasing to perform one FCA controlled function
SUP 10A.14.15RRP
If an FCA-approved person's title, name or national insurance number changes, the firm for which the person performs an FCA controlled function must notify the FCA on Form D, in the form set out in SUP 10A Annex 7R, of that change within seven business days of the firm becoming aware of the matter.
SUP 10A.14.16GRP
The duty to notify in SUP 10A.14.15 R does not apply to changes to an FCA-approved person's private address.
SUP 10A.14.17RRP
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
SUP 10A.14.19GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SUP 10A.14.21GRP
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
SUP 10A.14.23GRP
An example of where a firm should use Form D is when an individual who is appointed by one appointed representative becomes employed by another appointed representative but continues to perform the customer function for the firm. The firm should notify the FCA by completing Section 1.07 of Form D.
FEES 4.4.1RRP
A firm (other than the Society ) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation to fees payable to the FCA or Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1BR in relation to fees payable to the PRA)15 of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.
FEES 4.4.2RRP
A firm (other than the Society) must send to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)15 in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.1 R as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR in relation of fees payable to the FCA or Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1B R in relation to fees payable to the PRA15 (or FEES 4.2.7B R where
FEES 4.4.4GRP
In most cases a firm will provide the information required by this section as part of its compliance with the provisions of SUP. To the extent that the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA),14 does not obtain sufficient, or sufficiently detailed, information the FCA or the PRA, as appropriate,14 may seek this by using the general information gathering powers (see SUP 2 (Information gathering by the appropriate regulator14
FEES 4.4.7DRP
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
FEES 4.4.8DRP
3A firm4 must send to the FCA in writing the information required under FEES 4.4.7 D as soon as reasonably practicable, and in any event within two months, after the date specified as the valuation date in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11.
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
MAR 8.3.6RRP
A benchmark administrator must:(1) have effective arrangements and procedures that allow the regular monitoring and surveillance of benchmark submissions:(2) monitor the benchmark submissions in order to identify breaches of its practice standards (set out in MAR 8.3.10R (1)) and conduct that may involve manipulation, or attempted manipulation, of the specified benchmark it administers and provide to the oversight committee of the specified benchmark timely updates of suspected
MAR 8.3.9GRP
The oversight committee should be responsible for:(1) considering matters of definition and scope of the specified benchmark;(2) exercising collective scrutiny of benchmark submissions if and when required; and(3) notifying the FCA of benchmark submitters that fail on a recurring basis to follow the practice standards (as set out in MAR 8.3.10R (1)) for the specified benchmark.
MAR 8.3.10RRP
The benchmark administrator through its oversight committee must:(1) develop practice standards in a published code which set out the responsibilities for benchmark submitters, the benchmark administrator, and its oversight committee in relation to the relevant specified benchmark;(2) undertake regular periodic reviews of:(a) the practice standards mentioned in MAR 8.3.10R (1);(b) the setting and definition of the specified benchmark it administers;(c) the composition of benchmark
MAR 8.3.11RRP
The benchmark administrator must provide to the FCA, on a daily basis, all benchmark submissions it has received relating tothe specified benchmark it administers.
MAR 8.3.14GRP
MAR 8.3.13 R sets out the minimum amount of financial resources a benchmark administrator must hold in order to carry out administering a specified benchmark. However, the FCA expects benchmark administrators to normally hold sufficient financial resources to cover the operating costs of administering the specified benchmark for a period of nine months.
MAR 8.3.15GRP
The financial resources in respect of the requirement in MAR 8.3.13R (2):(1) can includeliquid financial assets held on the balance sheet of the benchmark administrator, for example, cash and liquid financial instruments where the financial instruments have minimal market and credit risk and are capable of being liquidated with minimal adverse price effect, common stock, retained earnings, disclosed reserves and other instruments generally classified as common equity tier one
MAR 8.3.16GRP
The FCA may use its powers under section 55L of the Act to impose on a benchmark administrator a requirement to hold additional financial resources to MAR 8.3.13 R if the FCA considers it desirable to meet any of its statutory objectives.
FEES 3.2.1RRP
A person in column (1) of the table in FEES 3.2.7 R and, if applicable, FEES 3.2.7A R78 as the relevant fee payer for a particular activity must pay to the FCA (in its own capacity or, if the fee is payable to the PRA, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA)78 a fee for each application or request for vetting, or request for support relating to compatibility of its systems with appropriate regulator78 systems,7 or admission approval made, or notification or notice of
FEES 3.2.4GRP
The FCA expects that a person seeking to become a recognised body or a designated professional body or to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies 15will generally pay their respective fees by electronic credit transfer.
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the appropriate regulator will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees payable to the FCA78

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

78

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the appropriate regulator78 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the appropriate regulator78 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the appropriate regulator785for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the appropriate regulator's78 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the appropriate regulator78 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1125785785787878

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555785785

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator78, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator78 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2

2787878

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 78 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

17878111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713797227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA77 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.77

77The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7777

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78		 78 91678

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SYSC 19A.3.2GRP
SYSC 12.1.13 R (2)(dA) requires the firm to ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group of which a firm is a member comply with the obligations set out in this section on a consolidated (or sub-consolidated) basis. In the appropriate regulator's view, the requirement to apply this section at group, parent undertaking and subsidiary undertaking levels (as provided for in SYSC 19A.3.1
SYSC 19A.3.3RRP
(1) This section applies in relation to Remuneration Code staff, except as set out in (3).(2) When establishing and applying the total remuneration policies for Remuneration Code staff, a firm must comply with this section in a way and to the extent that is appropriate to its size, internal organisation and the nature, the scope and the complexity of its activities (the remuneration principles proportionality rule).(3) Paragraphs (1) and (2) do not apply to the requirement for
SYSC 19A.3.4RRP
Remuneration Code staff comprises categories of staff including senior management, risk takers, staff engaged in control functions and any employee receiving total remuneration that takes them into the same remuneration bracket as senior management and risk takers, whose professional activities have a material impact on the firm's risk profile.[Note: article 92(2) of CRD paragraph 23 of Annex V to the Banking Consolidation Directive]
SYSC 19A.3.21GRP
The appropriate regulator would normally expect it to be appropriate for the ban on paying variable remuneration to senior personnel of a firm that benefits from exceptional government intervention to apply only in relation to senior personnel who were in office at the time that the intervention was required.
SYSC 19A.3.23GRP
(1) This Remuneration Principle stresses the importance of risk adjustment in measuring performance, and the importance within that process of applying judgment and common sense. A firm should ask the risk management function to validate and assess risk-adjustment techniques, and to attend a meeting of the governing body or remuneration committee for this purpose.(2) A number of risk-adjustment techniques and measures are available, and a firm should choose those most appropriate
SYSC 19A.3.31GRP
In the appropriate regulator's view, circumstances in which a person will be using a personal hedging strategy include entering into an arrangement with a third party under which the third party will make payments, directly or indirectly, to that person that are linked to or commensurate with the amounts by which the person'sremuneration is subject to reductions.
SYSC 19A.3.34GRP
(1) Taking account of the remuneration principles proportionality rule, the appropriate regulator8 does not generally consider it necessary for a firm to apply the rules referred to in (2) where, in relation to an individual ("X"), both the following conditions are satisfied:8(a) Condition 1 is that Xs variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and(b) Condition 2 is that Xs total remuneration is no more than 500,000.(2) The rules referred to in (1) are those
SYSC 19A.3.43GRP
In the appropriate regulator's view, variable remuneration can be awarded to Remuneration Code staff in the form of retention awards where it is compatible with the Remuneration Code general requirement to do so. The appropriate regulator considers this is likely to be the case only where a firm is undergoing a major restructuring and a good case can be made for retention of particular key staff members on prudential grounds. Proposals to give retention awards should form part
SYSC 19A.3.50GRP
(1) Deferred remuneration paid in shares or share-linked instruments should be made under a scheme which meets appropriate criteria, including risk adjustment of the performance measure used to determine the initial allocation of shares. Deferred remuneration paid in cash should also be subject to performance criteria.(2) The appropriate regulator would generally expect a firm to have a firm-wide policy (and group-wide policy, where appropriate) on deferral. The proportion deferred
SYSC 19A.3.53GRP
(1) Variable remuneration may be justified, for example, to incentivise employees involved in new business ventures which could be loss-making in their early stages.(2) The governing body (or, where appropriate, the remuneration committee) should approve performance adjustment policies, including the triggers under which adjustment would take place. The appropriate regulator may ask firms to provide a copy of their policies and expects firms to make adequate records of material
SYSC 19A.3.55GRP
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision. SYSC 19A.3.53A R and1SYSC 19A.3.54 R (together with SYSC 19A Annex 1) are such rules1 and render1 void provisions of an agreement that contravene the specified
SUP 6.3.1AGRP
27Under section 55H of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the FCA to vary its Part 4A permission to:(1) allow it to carry on further regulated activities, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) reduce the number of regulated activities it is permitted to carry on; or (3) vary the description of its regulated activities (including by the removal or variation of any limitations).
SUP 6.3.1BGRP
27Under section 55I of the Act, an FCA-authorised person may apply to the PRA to vary its Part 4A permission to add regulated activities which include a PRA-regulated activity.
SUP 6.3.2AGRP
27Under section 55L(5) of the Act a firm with a Part 4A permission may apply to the FCA for the imposition of a new requirement and/or the variation or cancellation of any requirement previously imposed by the FCA.
SUP 6.3.15DRP
(1) A firm other than a credit union wishing to make an application under SUP 6 must apply online using the form specified on the ONA system.1414272727(2) [deleted]271427(3) Until the application has been determined, a firm which submits an application must inform the relevant regulator27 of any significant change to the information given in the application immediately it becomes aware of the change.27(3A) Where an application requires the consent of the FCA, a firm which submits
SUP 6.3.28AGRP
27Where a firm applies to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission, the FCA, in giving consent to such an application or imposing any requirements on the firm, is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that the firm satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part 4A permission after the variation.
SUP 6.3.28BGRP
(1) 27The FCA's duty under section 55B(3) of the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its operational objectives. This may include granting or consenting to (as the case may be) a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able
SUP 6.3.32AGRP
27The FCA's power to vary a Part 4A permission after it receives an application from a firm extends to including in the Part 4A permission as varied any provision that could be included as though a fresh permission was being given in response to an application under section 55A of the Act (Application for permission). Under section 55E of the Act (Giving permission: the FCA) the FCA may:(1) incorporate in the description of a regulated activity such limitations (for example, as
SUP 6.3.32BGRP
27Thus, when determining an application for variation of Part 4A permission, the FCA can, include new limitations and vary existing limitations, either on application from the firm (for example, the customer categories with which a firm may carry on a specified activity) or, if considered appropriate, by the FCA under section 55E(5) of the Act.
SUP 6.3.32CGRP
27If a firm has applied (whether to the FCA or the PRA) for the variation of a Part 4A permission, the FCA has the power to impose on that person such requirements, taking effect on or after the variation of permission, as the FCA considers appropriate.
SUP 6.3.34AGRP
27Where a firm has made an application to the PRA for the variation of its Part 4A permission and requirements are imposed by the FCA which were not included in the firm's application, the FCA will be required to issue the firm with a warning notice and decision notice (see SUP 6.3.39 G).
SUP 6.3.36AGRP
27Where the application cannot be determined by the PRA without the consent of the FCA, section 55V(3) of the Act requires that the FCA's decision must also be made within the period required in SUP 6.3.35 G or SUP 6.3.36 G as appropriate.
SUP 6.3.37AGRP
27The FCA publishes standard times on its website setting out how long the application process is expected to take. From time to time, the FCA also publishes its performance against these times.
SUP 6.3.40GRP
DEPP9gives guidance on the FCA's27 decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part 4A permission or for imposition or variation of a requirement27 either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FCA27 but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).92727
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the appropriate regulator may exercise its own-initiative variation power to vary or cancel their Part 4A permission if they do not (see section 55J of the Act (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator)):2727(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or27(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part 4A permission27 for a period
FIT 1.3.1GRP
The appropriate regulator will have regard to a number of factors when assessing the fitness and propriety of a person to perform a particular controlled function. The most important considerations will be the person's:(1) honesty, integrity and reputation;(2) competence and capability; and(3) financial soundness.
FIT 1.3.2GRP
In assessing fitness and propriety, the appropriate regulator will also take account of the activities of the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed, the permission held by that firm and the markets within which it operates.
FIT 1.3.3GRP
The criteria listed in FIT 2.1 to FIT 2.3 are guidance and will be applied in general terms when the appropriate regulator is determining a person's fitness and propriety. It would be impossible to produce a definitive list of all the matters which would be relevant to a particular determination.
FIT 1.3.4GRP
If a matter comes to the appropriate regulator's attention which suggests that the person might not be fit and proper, the appropriate regulator will take into account how relevant and how important it is.
FIT 1.3.5GRP
During the application process, the appropriate regulator may discuss the assessment of the candidate's fitness and propriety informally with the firm making the application and may retain any notes of those discussions.
LR 3.2.1GRP
The FCA will maintain the official list on its website.
LR 3.2.2RRP
An applicant for admission must apply to the FCA by:(1) submitting, in final form:(a) the documents described in LR 3.3 in the case of an application in respect of equity shares;44(b) the documents described in LR 3.4 in the case of an application in respect of debt securities or other securities;(c) the documents described in LR 3.5 in the case of a block listing;(2) submitting all additional documents, explanations and information as required by the FCA;(3) submitting verification
LR 3.2.3GRP
Before submitting the documents referred to in LR 3.2.2 R (1), an applicant should contact the FCA to agree the date on which the FCA will consider the application.3
LR 3.2.4RRP
All documents must be submitted to the Issuer Management5at the FCA's address.5
LR 3.2.5GRP
The FCA will admit securities to listing if all relevant documents required byLR 3.2.2 R2 have been submitted to the FCA.2
LR 3.2.6GRP
When considering an application for admission to listing, the FCA may:(1) carry out any enquiries and request any further information which it considers appropriate, including consulting with other regulators or exchanges;(2) request that an applicant, or its specified representative answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application for listing;(3) take into account any information which it considers appropriate in relation to the application
LR 3.2.7GRP
The admission becomes effective only when the FCA's decision to admit the securities to listing has been announced by being either:(1) disseminated by a RIS; or(2) posted on a notice board designated by the FCA should the electronic systems be unavailable.
FEES 2.1.1RRP
621Except to the extent referred to in FEES 2.1.1A R, this1621120 chapter applies to every person who is required to pay a fee or share of a levy to the appropriate regulator, FOS Ltd or FSCS, as the case may be, by a provision of the Handbook.
FEES 2.1.4GRP
The purpose of this chapter is to set out the general provisions applicable to those who are required to pay fees or levies to the5appropriate regulator or a share of the FSCS levy.621562156
FEES 2.1.5GRP
Paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 of2 the Act,7 regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and 3 regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations7 enable the FCA18 to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions. The corresponding provisions for the FSCS levy ,5FOS levies and CFEB levies5 are set out in FEES 6.1,5FEES 5.2 and FEES 7.1.4 G5 respectively. Case fees payable to the FOS Ltd are set out in FEES 5.5A. 621Fee-paying payment service providers
FEES 2.1.5AGRP
3Regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations each provide7 that the functions of the FCA18 under the respective7 regulations are treated for the purposes of paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 to the Act as functions conferred on the FCA18 under the Act. Paragraphs 23(7) and 20(1)(b) 18 however, have not been included .7 These are, respectively, the FCA's187 obligation to ensure that the amount of penalties received or expected
FEES 2.1.6GRP
The appropriate regulator18fees payable will vary from one fee year18 to another, and will reflect the appropriate regulator's18funding requirement for that period and the other key components, as described in FEES 2.1.7G. Periodic fees, which will normally be payable on an annual basis, will provide the majority of the funding required to enable the appropriate regulator18to undertake its statutory functions.18181818
FEES 2.1.7GRP
The key components of the appropriate regulator fee mechanism (excluding the FSCS5levy, the FOS5 levy and case fees, and the CFEB levy5which are dealt with in FEES 5,5FEES 6 and FEES 7)5 are:555(1) a funding requirement derived from:(a) the appropriate regulator's financial management and reporting framework;(b) the appropriate regulator's budget; and(c) adjustments for audited variances between budgeted and actual expenditure in the previous accounting year, and reserves movements
FEES 2.1.9GRP
By basing fee-blocks on categories of business, the appropriate regulator aims to minimise cross-sector subsidies. The membership of the fee-blocks is identified in the FEES provisions relating to the type of fees concerned.
FEES 2.1.9AGRP
18PRA-authorised persons and persons seeking to become PRA-authorised persons should note that the FCA and the PRA have agreed for the FCA to act as the PRA's agent in relation to the collection of PRA fees. Where applicable, both PRA and FCA fees should be paid as a single payment to the FCA, which will receive the payment in its own capacity in respect of FCA fees and in its capacity as agent for the PRA in respect of the PRA fees. References to this arrangement will be referred
REC 3.8.1RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a copy of its annual report and accounts; and(2) a copy of the consolidated annual report and accounts: (a) of any group in which the UK recognised body is a subsidiary undertaking; or(b) (if the UK recognised body is not a subsidiary undertaking in any group) of any group of which the UK recognised body is a parent undertaking;no later than the time specified for the purpose of this rule in REC 3.8.2 R.
REC 3.8.2RRP
The time specified for the purpose of REC 3.8.1 R is the latest of:(1) four months after the end of the financial year to which the document which is to be given to the FCA1relates; or1(2) the time when the documents described in REC 3.8.1 R (1) or REC 3.8.1 R (2)(b) are sent to the members or shareholders of the UK recognised body; or (3) the time when the document described in REC 3.8.1 R (2)(a) are sent to the shareholders in a parent undertaking of the group to which that
REC 3.8.3RRP
Where an audit committee of a UK recognised body has prepared a report in relation to any period or any matter relating to any relevant function of that UK recognised body, the UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1a copy of that report.1
REC 3.8.4RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1a copy of:1(1) its quarterly management accounts; or (2) its monthly management accounts;within one month of the end of the period to which they relate.
REC 3.8.5GRP
A UK recognised body is not required to provide quarterly and monthly management accounts in respect of the same period, but management accounts (whether quarterly or monthly) should be submitted for all periods. A UK recognised body may choose whichever method is the more suitable for it, but where it intends to change from providing monthly to quarterly management accounts (or from quarterly to monthly management accounts), it should inform the FCA1 of that fact.1
REC 3.8.6RRP
A UK recognised body must give the FCA1:1(1) a statement of its anticipated income, expenditure and cashflow for each financial year; and(2) an estimated balance sheet showing its position as it is anticipated at the end of each financial year;before the beginning of that financial year.
REC 3.8.7RRP
Where the accounting reference date of a UK recognised body is changed, that body must immediately give notice of that event to the FCA1and inform it of the new accounting reference date.1