Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
161 - 180 of 426 items.
(1) Given the complexity of issues raised by passporting, UK firms are advised to consult legislation and also to obtain legal advice at earliest opportunity. Firms are encouraged to contact their usual supervisory contact at the appropriate UK regulator5 to discuss their proposals. However, a UK firm which is seeking guidance on procedural or notification issues relating to passporting should contact the FCA and PRA authorisations teams, as and where appropriate.555(2) An applicant
1Article
32(7) of MiFID provides that
the branch of a UK firm operating
from an establishment in another EEA state must
satisfy the transaction reporting requirements of the competent
authority in that other Member State in respect of reportable
transactions arising in the course of services provided in that other Member
State.
An incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation and only provides services in the United Kingdom5) 4or incoming Treaty firm carrying on business in the United Kingdom must comply with the applicable provisions (see SUP 13A.4.4 G, SUP 13A.4.6 G,5 and SUP 13A.5.4 G) and other relevant UK legislation. For example where the business includes:(1) business covered by the Consumer Credit
Under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, references in section 60 of the Act (applications for approval for persons to perform controlled functions) to "the authorised person concerned" include:33(1) an EEA MiFID investment firm whose Home State regulator has given a consent notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the authorised
(1) A firm that has a solo consolidation waiver must meet the obligations in SYSC 12.1.13 R (Application of certain systems and controls rules on a consolidated basis) on a consolidated basis with respect to the firm and each subsidiary undertaking to which the firm'ssolo consolidation waiver applies.(2) If (1) applies, SYSC 12.1.13 R applies to the group made up of the firm and its subsidiary undertakings referred to in (1) in the same way as it applies to a UK consolidation
A firm must treat itself and each subsidiary undertaking referred to in BIPRU 2.1.7 R as a single undertaking and must apply, on that basis, BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) to the group made up of the firm and such subsidiary undertakings in the same way as BIPRU 8 applies to a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group.
Under PRIN 3.3.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to a UK MiFID investment firm is extended to the extent that another applicable rule which is relevant to an activity has a wider territorial scope. Under PRIN 3.1.1 R, the territorial application of a number of Principles to an EEAMiFID investment firm is narrowed to the extent that responsibility for the matter in question is reserved to the firm'sHome State regulator. These modifications are relevant
(1) Certain requirements under MiFID are disapplied for:(a) eligible counterparty business;(b) transactions concluded under the rules governing a multilateral trading facility between its members or participants or between the multilateral trading facility and its members or participants in relation to the use of the multilateral trading facility;(c) transactions concluded on a regulated market between its members or participants.(2) Under PRIN 3.1.6 R, these disapplications may
For the purposes of FEES 7.2.3 R:(1) a firm may apply the relevant tariff bases and rates to its non-UK business, as well as to its UK business, if:(a) it has reasonable grounds for believing that the costs of identifying the firm'sUK business separately from its non-UK business in the way described in Part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 1A6 and Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 111 are disproportionate to the difference in fees payable; and (b) it notifies the FCA in writing at the same time as it provides
Table of FEES 4 rules that correspond to FEES 7 rules
FEES 4 rules |
Corresponding FEES 7 rules |
Part 1 of 6FEES 4 Annex 2A6 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 11 |
1Part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 11 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 1 |
1Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 11 |
Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 1 |
1Paragraph 1A of Schedule 6 to the Act(1) "assets" includes contingent assets;"consolidated supervision" has the same meaning as in section 3M(a);"consumer" has the meaning given by section 425A(b);"financial crime" is to be read with section 1H(3)(c);"functions", in relation to either the FCA or the PRA, means the functions conferred on that regulator by or under this Act;"liabilities" includes contingent liabilities; "relevant directives" has the same meaning as in section 3M;
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FCA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, it should consult section 39(1B) of the Act to determine the applicable register.(2) A UK MiFID investment firm that appoints an FCA
In most cases, any person who carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom by way of business must either be an authorised person or an exempt person. Otherwise, the person commits a criminal offence and certain agreements may be unenforceable. PERG 2.2 (Introduction) contains further guidance on these consequences.2
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:35(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions; or(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation; or(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the appropriate regulator35 notice of:35(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory;
6SUP 15.3.11 R (1)(e) relates to the standard requirement in the permission of those firms which fall outside MiFID because of the Treasury's implementation of Article 3 of MiFID. Guidance on how the Treasury has exercised the Article 3 exemption for the United Kingdom is given in Q48 and the following questions and answers in PERG 13.5 (Exemptions from MiFID).
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
The FCA5 will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.35333
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that investors within the territory of that Host State are provided with all the information and documents which it is required by the Handbook to provide to investors in the United Kingdom.(2) The information and documents referred to in (1) must be provided to investors in the way prescribed by the laws, regulations or administrative provisions of the Host State and in
For the purpose of pursuing its marketing activities in another Host State, an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme may use the same reference to the scheme's legal form (such as open-ended investment company or investment company with variable capital or authorised unit trust or, for an authorised contractual scheme, either a co-ownership scheme or a limited partnership scheme1) in its designation in the Host State as is used in the United Kingdom.[Note: article 96 of the
1This sourcebook applies to a firm with respect to the following activities carried on in relation to a non-investment insurance contract from an establishment maintained by it, or its appointed representative, in the United Kingdom:(1) an insurance mediation activity;(2) effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance;(3) managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's;(4) communicating or approving a financial promotion;and activities
The FSA logo is a registered UK service mark, with number 2150560. The FCA logo is a registered UK service mark, with number 2629534.12 The Key facts logo is a registered Community trade mark, with the number EU386668812. All12 are3 the property of the FCA12. They are 3also subject to copyright and may be used or reproduced with permission of the FCA12 only. If the FSA, FCA,12 or Key facts logos are 3reproduced or otherwise used by any person without such permission the FCA may
PRIN applies to every firm, except that:(1) for an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm, the Principles apply only in so far as responsibility for the matter in question is not reserved by an EU4 instrument to the firm's Home State regulator;4(2) for an incoming EEA firm which is a BCD credit institution without a top-up permission, Principle 4 applies only in relation to the liquidity of a branch established in the United Kingdom;(3) for an incoming EEA firm which has
Recognised bodies may receive complaints from time to time from their members and other people, both about the conduct of members and about the recognised body itself. A UK recognised body will need to have satisfactory arrangements to investigate these complaints in order to satisfy the relevant recognition requirements (see REC 2.15 and REC 2.16) or RAP recognition requirements (see REC 2A.3.2 G).1
Where the FCA2 receives a complaint about a recognised body, it will, in the first instance, seek to establish whether the complainant has approached the recognised body. Where this is not the case, the FCA2 will ask the complainant to complain to the recognised body. Where the complainant is dissatisfied with the handling of the complaint, but has not exhausted the recognised body's own internal complaints procedures (in the case of a complaint against a UK recognised body, including
(1) 1Under section 313A of the Act, the FCA5 may for the purpose of protecting:5(a) the interests of investors; or (b) the orderly functioning of the financial markets; require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument from trading.(2) If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned may refer the matter to the Tribunal.5
The procedure the FCA5 will follow if it exercises its power to require a UK RIE to suspend or remove a financial instrument3 from trading is set out in sections 313B to 313BE of the Act.3 The FCA's internal arrangements provide for decisions to exercise this power to be taken at an appropriately senior level. If the FCA5 exercises this power, the UK RIE concerned and the issuer (if any) of the relevant financial instrument may refer the matter to the Tribunal(see EG 2.39)2.2