Related provisions for BIPRU 12.7.7

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SUP 13.11.1RRP
(1) A UK firm which is exercising an EEA right must make and retain a record of:(a) the services or activities it carries on from a branch in, or provides cross-border into, another EEA State under that EEA right; and(b) the details relating to those services or activities (as set out in SUP 13.6 and SUP 13.7)1.11(2) The record in (1) must be kept for five years (for firms passporting under MiFID) or 1three years (for other firms)1from the earlier of the date on which:(a) it was
COLL 6.12.1RRP
1This section applies to:(1) an authorised fund manager and a depositary of a UCITS scheme; and(2) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.
COLL 6.12.2GRP
In the FCA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective
SUP 13A.3.1GRP
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm that is an EEA pure reinsurer, or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation,75qualifies for authorisation without condition. Other than those two types of EEA firm, an7EEA firm qualifies
SUP 13A.3.1AGRP
3If an EEA MiFID investment firm seeks to use a tied agent established in the UK, the EEA MiFID investment firm will be treated as if it were seeking to establish a branch and must satisfy the establishment conditions (see SUP 13A.4.1 G).
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees payable to the FCA76

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227

27

On or before the application is made

28(ea)

(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation

(ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation

FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4

On or before the date the notification is made

28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation

£750

On or before the date the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

76

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7676

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the appropriate regulator76 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the appropriate regulator76 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the appropriate regulator765for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the appropriate regulator's76 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the appropriate regulator76 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1125765765767676

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555765765

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator76, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator76 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2

2767676

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 76 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,76 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

17676111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1377 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713777227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA75 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.75

75The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7575

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]76

76
76 91676

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

76(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

76(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

COLL 6.6.6ARRP
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme, a depositary, an ICVC and any other director of an ICVC which is a UCITS scheme; and(b) subject to (2), a UKUCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) COLL 6.6A.6 R ((Strategies for the exercise of voting rights) also applies to a UKUCITS management company providing collective portfolio management
COLL 6.6.15ARRP
(1) 8This rule applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager (other than an EEA UCITS management company) of an AUT, ACS10 or an ICVC where such AUT, ACS10 or ICVC is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) The authorised fund manager has the power to retain the services of
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
COLL 5.4.4RRP
(1) An ICVC, or the depositary at the request of the ICVC, or the depositary of an AUT or ACS4 at the request of the authorised fund manager4, may enter into a repo contract, or a1stock lending arrangement of the kind described in section 263B of the Taxation of Chargeable Gains Act 1992 (without extension by section 263C), but only if:44(a) all the terms of the agreement under which securities are to be reacquired by the depositary for the account of the ICVC, AUT or ACS4 are
FEES 1.1.2RRP
This manual applies in the following way:(1) FEES 1, 2 and 3 apply to the fee payers listed in column 1 of the Table of application, notification and vetting fees in FEES 3.2.7 R. and FEES 3.2.7A R.4910(a) [deleted]1010(b) [deleted]1010(c) [deleted]1010(d) [deleted]1010(e) [deleted]10(f) [deleted]1010(g) [deleted]1010(h) [deleted]1010(i) [deleted]1010(j) [deleted]1010(k) [deleted]1010(l) [deleted]1010(m) [deleted]1010(n) [deleted]104(o) 3345410[deleted]10(p) 55410[deleted]10(q)
SUP App 3.9.4GRP

Activities set out in Annex I of the BCD1

1

Table 1: BCD activities

Part II RAO Activities

Part III RAO Investments

1.

Acceptance of deposits and other repayable funds from the public

Article 5

Article 74

2.

Lending

Article 61, 64

Article 88

3.

Financial leasing

4.

Money transmission services

5.

Issuing and administering means of payment (eg credit cards, travellers' cheques and bankers' drafts)

6.

Guarantees and commitments

7.

Trading for own account or for account of customers in:

(a) money market instruments

(b) foreign exchange

(c) financial futures and options

(d) exchange and interest rate instruments

(e) transferable securities

Article 14, 21, 25 (see Note 1), 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 14, 21, 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 80, 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 83-85, 89

Article 76-81, 89

8.

Participation in share issues and the provision of services relating to such issues

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 89

9.

Advice to undertakings on capital structure, industrial strategy and related questions and advice and services relating to mergers and the purchase of undertakings

Article 14, 21, 25, 53, 64

Article 76-80, 83-85, 89

10.

Money broking

Article 25, 64

Article 77, 78, 89

11.

Portfolio management and advice

Article 14, 21, 25, 37, 53, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

12.

Safekeeping and administration of securities

Article 40, 45, 64

Article 76-81, 83-85, 89

13.

Credit reference services

14.

Safe custody services

1 1

3Note 12: The services and activities provided for in Sections A and B of Annex I of MiFID when referring to the financial instruments provided for in Section C of Annex I of that Directive are subject to mutual recognition according to the BCD from 1 November 2007.See2 the table at SUP App 3.9.5 G below for mapping of MiFIDinvestment services and activities.For further details relating to this residual category, please see the "Banking Consolidation Directive"section of the passporting forms entitled "Notification of intention to establish a branch in another EEA State" and "Notification of intention to provide cross border services in another EEA State".2

2
SYSC 10.1.1ARRP
6This section also applies to:(1) a full-scope UK AIFM of:(i) a UK AIF; (ii) an EEA AIF managed or marketed from an establishment in the UK; and(iii) a non-EEA AIF; and(2) an incoming EEA AIFM branch which manages or markets a UKAIF .
SYSC 14.1.2RRP
This section applies to:(1) an EEA-deposit insurer; and(2) a Swiss general insurer;only in respect of the activities of the firm carried on from a branch in the United Kingdom.
SUP 12.2.16GRP
(1) 12A tied agent is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID investment firm (or a third country investment firm) in respect of MiFID business (or the equivalent business of the third country investment firm). Most tied agents appointed by firms are also appointed representatives.(2) Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a tied agent that is an appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of
COBS 16.6.2RRP
If during the term of a life policy entered into on or after 1 July 1994 there is any proposed change in the information referred to in paragraphs (1) to (12) of the Consolidated Life Directive information (COBS 13 Annex 1) the long-term insurer must inform the policyholder of the effect of the change before the change is made. [Note: article 36(2) of the Consolidated Life Directive]
SYSC 4.1.2CRRP
10A management company, a full-scope UK AIFM and an incoming EEA AIFMbranch14 must have, and employ effectively, the resources and procedures that are necessary for the proper performance of its business activities.[Note: articles 12(1)(a) and 14(1)(c) of the UCITS Directive and article 12(1)(c) of AIFMD14]
BIPRU 13.7.6RRP
A firm may treat contractual netting as risk-reducing only under the following conditions:(1) the firm must have a contractual netting agreement with its counterparty which creates a single legal obligation, covering all included transactions, such that, in the event of a counterparty's failure to perform owing to default, bankruptcy, liquidation or any other similar circumstance, the firm would have a claim to receive or an obligation to pay only the net sum of the positive and
COLL 6.10.1RRP
(1) 1This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) This section does not apply to an EEA UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services.
BIPRU 12.9.10GRP
In relation to an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm, where the appropriate regulator gives that firmindividual liquidity guidance in relation to its UKbranch, it will have regard to the liquidity risk profile of the branch. In the absence of a whole-firm liquidity modification, the effect of BIPRU 12.2.1R (2)(b) and BIPRU 12.2.3 R is to require the firm to hold a liquid assets buffer of the amount identified as appropriate in its individual liquidity guidance (or in
SUP 15.9.5RRP
(1) 3A firm must, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, regularly provide the appropriate regulator with details on the financial conglomerate's legal structure and governance and organisational structure, including all regulated entities, non-regulated subsidiaries and significant branches.(2) A firm must disclose publicly, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, on an annual basis, either in full or by way of references to equivalent information, a description
SUP 13.8.1RRP
(1) Where a firm is required to submit a4 notice of a change to a branch referred to in 2SUP 13.6.5 G (1), SUP 13.6.5BG (1), 2SUP 13.6.7 G (1), SUP 13.6.8 G2, SUP 13.6.9B R3SUP 13.6.10 G (1) and SUP 13.6.9C G or4 a notice of a change to cross border services referred to in2SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3AG (1), 2SUP 13.7.5 G (1)SUP 13.7.6 G2, SUP 13.7.13G and SUP 13.7.14 G7it must complete and submit that notice in accordance with the procedures set out in SUP 13.5 for notifying