Related provisions for PERG 9.7.1
- (1)
The main provision within the definition of alternative debenture arrangements that seeks to ensure that only instruments that display the characteristics of a debt security can be alternative debentures is set out at PERG 2.6.11CG (5). It provides that the amount of additional payments under the arrangements must not exceed an amount which would, at the time the bond is issued, be a reasonable commercial return on a loan of capital. Where the return is not fixed at the outset, it is the maximum possible amount of the additional payments that must be considered in deciding this question. The following example demonstrates how this condition should be approached.
- additional payments under the arrangements would exceed a reasonable commercial return on a loan of the capital.
Further, where the return is not fixed at the outset, it is the maximum possible amount of the additional payments that must be considered. Here, the issue terms of the sukuk impose no upper limit on the amount of the periodic distributions: a sakk holder subscribing 1,000 may, in a year, get back 200 or 2,000 or nothing depending on the rental market. The maximum potential return is clearly in excess of a reasonable commercial return on a loan of 1,000; and
- the arrangements have not been admitted to an official list or admitted to trading on a regulated market or recognised investment exchange (see PERG 2.6.11CG (6)).
- (2)
If, in the above example, investors returns were capped at 500 per sakk per year, then this is the amount that must be considered in deciding whether the return exceeds a reasonable commercial return on a loan, even where the amounts actually received turn out to be far lower.
- (3)
In applying the reasonable commercial return test, the sakk should be compared to a hypothetical loan to the issuer on similar terms and carrying similar risks. For example, a conventional security convertible into shares will normally carry a lower rate of interest because the conversion right has a value. The return on an exchangeable or convertible sakk should be measured against the return on an equivalent exchangeable or convertible debt security.
- (4)
The risk to investors in sukuk may vary slightly from that of a conventional bond in some instances. This may be due to the fact that sukuk holders only have recourse to the bond assets or some other structural feature which results in the risk profile being higher. In such instances it may be justifiable for the rate of return to be slightly higher than that of a conventional loan.
- (5)
As with any financial instrument, the pricing of sukuk will depend on the issuers view of the market at the time of issue and reasonable commercial return may vary depending on the issuer and the economic circumstances prevalent at the time of issue.
Example ABC Ltd is a property development company. It wishes to increase its portfolio on a short-term basis. It issues 5-year sukuk to investors and uses the proceeds to buy the head lease of a commercial property. The rental income from the lease is distributed to investors in proportion to their holdings without a cap on the level of return. After 5 years, the head lease is sold on at a profit and the proceeds shared between investors. In this example, the investors participate directly in the success or failure of the underlying property business. The sakk is not really in the nature of a debt instrument. It is unlikely to be an alternative debenture as: |
Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:
85 |
(1) |
It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made. |
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(2) |
It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made. |
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(3) |
A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable – |
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(a) |
on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both; |
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(b) |
on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both. |
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(4) |
A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty. |
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(5) |
Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than – |
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(a) |
those listed in Schedule 11A; |
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(b) |
such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R]. |
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(6) |
Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than – |
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(a) |
those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A; |
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(b) |
such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R]. |
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(7) |
"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities. |
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86 |
Exempt offers to the public |
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(1) |
A person does not contravene section 85(1) if – |
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(a) |
the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only; |
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(b) |
the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State; |
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(c) |
the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount); 3 |
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(d) |
the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts); 33 |
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(e) |
the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3 3 |
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3(f) |
the offer falls within subsection (1A). |
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3(1A) |
An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where: |
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3(a) |
the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public; |
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3(b) |
in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied; |
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3(c) |
a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by a competent authority no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made; and |
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3(d) |
the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer. |
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(2) |
Where - |
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(a) |
a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and 3 |
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(b) |
the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client, |
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an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client. |
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(3) |
For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to – |
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(a) |
trustees of a trust, |
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(b) |
members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or |
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(c) |
two or more persons jointly, |
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is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person. |
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(4) |
In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which – |
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(a) |
was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and |
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(b) |
had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e). |
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(5) |
For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account. |
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(6) |
The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made. |
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(7) |
"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means – |
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(a) |
a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3 3 |
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(b) |
a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3 3 |
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(c) |
a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3 3 |
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3(d) |
a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive. |
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3(8) |
In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer. |
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3(9) |
Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection. |
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3(10) |
In subsections (8) and (9) - “credit institution” means - (a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or (b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State. |
Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:
2Section 292(3) |
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The requirements are that- |
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(a) |
investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply withrecognition requirementsother than such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph3; |
(b) |
there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE] 3 |
(c) |
the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and 3 |
(d) |
adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated. 3 |
Section 292(4) |
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In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to- 3 |
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(a) |
the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated; |
(b) |
the rules and practices of the applicant. |
The guidance in relation to the recognition requirements in the sections of REC 2 listed in Column A of the table below applies to an RAP in relation to the equivalent RAP recognition requirements listed in Column C and (if shown) with the modifications in Column B.
Table: Guidance on RAP recognition requirements
Column A REC 2 guidance which applies to an RAP |
Column B Modification to REC 2 guidance for an RAP |
Column C Relevant RAP recognition requirement |
REC 2.2.2 G to REC 2.2.7 G (Relevant circumstances and Outsourcing) |
Reg 13 |
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REC 2.3.3 G to REC 2.3.9 G (Financial resources) |
Reg 14 |
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REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G (Suitability) |
In addition to the matters set out in REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G, the FCA3 will have regard to whether a key individual has been allocated responsibility for overseeing the auction platform of the UK recognised body. 3 |
Reg 15 |
REC 2.5.3 G to REC 2.5.20 G (Systems and controls and conflicts) and REC 2.5A (Guidance on Public Interest Disclosure Act: Whistleblowing) |
Reg 16 and 17(2)(f)1 |
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REC 2.6.26 G to REC 2.6.34 G (Safeguards for investors) |
Reg 17 |
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REC 2.7.3 G to REC 2.7.4 G (Access to facilities) |
The FCA3 shall have regard to whether an RAP provides access to bid at auctions only to those persons eligible to bid under article 18 of the auction regulation. 3 |
Reg 17(2)(a) and1 20 |
REC 2.8.3 G to REC 2.8.4 G (Settlement and clearing services) |
Reg 17(2)(d) and 21 |
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REC 2.9.3 G to REC 2.9.4 G (Transaction recording) |
Reg 17(2)(e) |
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REC 2.10.3 G to REC 2.10.4 G (Financial crime and market abuse) |
Reg 17(2)(g) |
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REC 2.11.3 G to REC 2.11.4 G (Custody) |
REC 2.11.4 G is replaced with the following for an RAP: Where an RAP arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the RAP recognition requirement in regulation 17(2)(h) of the RAP regulations (see REC 2A.2.1 UK). |
Reg 17(2)(h) |
REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G (Availability of relevant information) |
REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G are replaced with the following for an RAP: In determining whether appropriate arrangements have been made to make relevant information available to persons engaged in dealing in emissions auction products2 the FCA3 may have regard to: (1) the extent to which auction bidders are able to obtain information in a timely fashion about the terms of those emissions auction products2 and the terms on which they will be auctioned, either through accepted channels for dissemination of information or through other regularly and widely accessible communication media; (2) what restrictions, if any, there are on the dissemination of relevant information to auction bidders; and (3) whether relevant information is, or can be, kept to restricted groups of persons in such a way as to facilitate or encourage market abuse. An RAP does not need to maintain its own arrangements for providing information on the terms of emissions auction products2 to auction bidders where it has made adequate arrangements for other persons to do so on its behalf or there are other effective and reliable arrangements for this purpose. 2322 |
Reg 17(2)(c) |
REC 2.13.3 G to REC 2.13.6 G (Promotion and maintenance of standards) |
Reg 18 |
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REC 2.14.3 G to REC 2.14.6 G (Rules and consultation) |
Reg 19 |
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REC 2.15.3 G to REC 2.15.6 G (Discipline) |
Reg 22 |
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REC 2.16.3 G to REC 2.16.4 G (Complaints) |
Reg 23 |