Related provisions for SUP 10A.13.10

21 - 40 of 72 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

SUP 8.6.1GRP
The appropriate regulator4 is required by sections 138B(1) and (2)4 of the Act to publish a waiver unless it is satisfied that it is inappropriate or unnecessary to do so. If the appropriate regulator4 publishes a waiver, it will not publish details of why a waiver was required or any of the supporting information given in a waiver application.444
SUP 8.6.4GRP
In making waiver applications under section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations, SUP 8.6.2 G (2) should be read in application to rules in COLL as if the word "commercial" were omitted.12
SUP 8.6.7GRP
If, after taking into account the matters in SUP 8.3.3 D to SUP 8.6.6 G, a firm believes there are good grounds for the appropriate regulator4 either to withhold publication or to publish the waiver without disclosing the identity of the firm, it should make this clear in its application. If the appropriate regulator4proposes to publish a waiver against the wishes of the firm, the appropriate regulator4 will give the firm the opportunity to withdraw its application before the
BIPRU 9.5.1BDRP
1An originator's application for a waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.5.1R (6) and (7) must demonstrate that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) it has policies and methodologies in place which ensure that the possible reduction of capital requirements which the originator achieves by the securitisation is justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties; and(2) that such transfer of credit risk to third parties is also recognised for the purposes
BIPRU 9.5.1DGRP
1When considering an application for a waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.5.1R (6) and (7), the appropriate regulator may undertake a visit to the firm in order to examine the firm's risk management and governance arrangements. Before such a visit, the appropriate regulator may request information from the firm additional or supplementary to that provided in the waiver application.
BIPRU 9.5.1EGRP
1An originator should clearly state the scope of the waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.5.1R (6) and (7) it is seeking in its application. For example, residential mortgage backed securities may be subdivided into prime and sub-prime with only one sub-category within the scope of the waiver. Relevant asset classes may therefore be defined according to a firm's internal usage of terms.
SUP 12.7.1ARRP
(1) 8A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R onlineat http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA's ONAsystem.(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities
SUP 12.7.8ARRP
(1) 8A firm other than a credit union must submit the form as set out in SUP 12 Annex 4 R online at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA's ONAsystem.(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such
SUP 12.7.10GRP
8If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that firms, other than credit unions, should use the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.7.1AR (3) and SUP 12.7.8AR (3) (as appropriate), and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G, addressingclearly marking applications for the attention of the Individuals
SUP 15.3.21RRP
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately of any of the following events:35(1) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the firm; or(2) an application to dissolve the firm or to strike it off the Register of Companies; or(3) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the firm; or(4) the making of, or any proposals for the making of, a composition or arrangement with any one or more of its creditors; or(5) an application for the
SUP 15.3.26RRP
15A full-scope UK AIFM must notify the FCA before implementing any material changes to the conditions under which it was granted permission to manage an AIF, in particular to the information it provided in its application for that permission. [Note: article 10(1) of AIFMD]
DEPP 1.2.4BGRP
2Where an application for Part 4A permission is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator (section 55A(2)(a) of the Act), the PRA may only give permission with the consent of the FCA (section 55F of the Act). FCA consent can be conditional on the PRA imposing limitations or specifying the permission is for certain regulated activities only.
DEPP 1.2.4DGRP
2Where an application to perform a controlled function is made to the PRA as the appropriate regulator, the PRA can only approve a person to perform a controlled function with the consent of the FCA (section 59(4)(b) of the Act).
BIPRU 9.3.11DRP
1An originator's application for a waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.3.7R and BIPRU 9.3.8R must demonstrate that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) it has policies and methodologies in place which ensure that the possible reduction of capital requirements which the originator achieves by the securitisation is justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties; and(2) that such transfer of credit risk to third parties is also recognised for the purposes
BIPRU 9.3.14GRP
1An originator should clearly state the scope of the waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.3.7R and BIPRU 9.3.8R it is seeking in its application. For example, residential mortgage backed securities may be subdivided into prime and sub-prime with only one sub-category within the scope of the waiver. Relevant asset classes may therefore be defined according to a firm's internal usage of terms.
BIPRU 9.4.15DRP
2An originator's application for a waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.4.11R and BIPRU 9.4.12R must demonstrate that the following conditions are satisfied.(1) 2it has policies and methodologies in place which ensure that the possible reduction of capital requirements which the originator achieves by the securitisation is justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties; and(2) 2that such a transfer of credit risk to third parties is also recognised for the
BIPRU 9.4.17GRP
2When considering an application for a waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.4.11R and BIPRU 9.4.12R, the appropriate regulator may undertake a visit to the firm in order to examine the firm's risk management and governance arrangements. Before such a visit, the appropriate regulator may request information from the firm additional or supplementary to that provided in the waiver application.
SUP 10A.11.4GRP
The PRA cannot give its approval for the performance of a PRA controlled function without the consent of the FCA. The firm does not need to apply to the FCA for that consent. The PRA must as soon as practicable notify the FCA of the receipt or withdrawal of an application to the PRA.
REC 3.14A.6GRP
2If a UK RIE proposes to operate an RAP, it will need to make a separate application to be recognised as an RAP (see REC 5 (Applications)).
LR 1.2.2RRP
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify a listing rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required by
LR 1.2.3GRP
An application to dispense with or modify a listing rule should ordinarily be made:(1) for a listing rule that is a continuing obligation, at least five business days before the proposed dispensation or modification is to take effect; and(2) for any other listing rule, at least ten business days before the proposed dispensation or modification is to take effect.
SUP 10A.12.2GRP

Table: FCA-approved persons forms

Form

Purpose

Handbook requirement

the relevant Form A

The relevant online form on the FCA and PRA's ONAsystem or the form in SUP 10A Annex 4D (See Note)

Application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime

SUP 10A.13.3 D

Form B

SUP 10A Annex 5R

Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime

SUP 10A.13.19 R

Form C

SUP 10A Annex 6R

Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions

SUP 10A.14.8 R

Form D

SUP 10A Annex 7R

Notification of changes in personal information or application details

SUP 10A.14.15 R

Form E

The relevant online form on the FCA and PRA's ONAsystem or the form in SUP 10A Annex 8D (See Note)

Internal transfer of an approved person

SUP 10A.14.4 D

Note: The form in the SUP annex shown is to be used by credit unions, and by other firms only in the event of a failure of the information technology systems used by the FCA. See the relevant "Handbook requirement"

SUP 10A.12.5GRP
Forms B, C, D and E can only be submitted in respect of an FCA-approved person by the firm that submitted an FCA-approved person's original application (the relevant Form A).
REC 6.7.5RRP
An ROIE1 must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that ROIE1 is made: 11(1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after the application for recognition
REC 6.7.13GRP
ROIEs 1may apply to the FCA1 for a waiver of any of the notification rules. The procedure is the same as that for applications from UK recognised bodies. Guidance on the procedure is given in REC 3.3.1
SUP 6.4.9GRP
A firm will be expected to demonstrate to the relevant regulator24 that it has ceased carrying on regulated activities. The relevant regulator24 may require, as part of the application, a report from the firm that includes, but is not limited to, the confirmations referred to in SUP 6.4.12 G (as appropriate to the firm's business). The relevant regulator24 may also require additional information to be submitted with the report including, in some cases, confirmation or verification
SUP 6.4.27GRP
(1) Under section 55V(1)24of the Act (Determination of applications), the relevant regulator24 has six months to consider a completed application.2424(2) If the relevant regulator24 receives an application which is incomplete, that is, where information or a document required as part of the application is not provided, section 55V(2) of the Act requires the relevant regulator24 to determine the incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.2424(3)
SUP 6.4.27AGRP
24The FCA publishes standard response times on its website setting out how long the application process is expected to take in practice. From time to time, the FCA also publishes its performance against these times.
DTR 1A.2.2RRP
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify, a transparency rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
DTR 1A.2.3GRP
An application to dispense with or modify a transparency rule should ordinarily be made at least five business days before the proposed dispensation or modification is to take effect.
FEES 3.2.5GRP
(1) (2) With the exception of persons seeking to become a designated professional body, all applications, notifications, requests for vetting or admission approval will be treated as incomplete until the relevant fee is fully paid and the appropriate regulator will not consider an application, notification, request for vetting or admission approval until the relevant fee is fully paid. Persons seeking to become a designated professional body have 30 days after the designation
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees payable to the FCA78

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

78

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made26

26(ga) Any applicant for:

(i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or

(ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act

7878

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the appropriate regulator78 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the appropriate regulator78 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the appropriate regulator785for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the appropriate regulator's78 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the appropriate regulator78 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

1125785785787878

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

52512555785785

Where the firm has made an application directly to the appropriate regulator78, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the appropriate regulator78 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2

2787878

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A or Part 1 of 78 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1

17878111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus or listing particulars in relation to a Depositary Receipt.22

713797227

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,250 to the PRA and 9,250 to the FCA77 ; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. to the PRA and 5,000 is payable to the FCA.77

77The amount payable to the PRA above is collected by the FCA as agent of the PRA.

7777

On or before any application is made to the PRA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FCA to report transaction reports directly to the FCA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FCA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FCA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FCA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FCA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus or equivalent document, a prospectus or listing particulars22 in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

22

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSAFCA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSAFCA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FCA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FCA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSAFCA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) [deleted]78

78
78 91678

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21

21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either:

(i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or

(ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).

An amount equal to:

(1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or

(2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zp) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2.

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

78(zq) A person in respect of which the appropriate regulator has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act .

Any amount invoiced to the appropriate regulator by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the appropriate regulator pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SUP App 2.10.1GRP
The PRA6 may ask a firm seeking a grant or variation of permission to provide a scheme of operations as part of the application process (see SUP 6.3.25 G). Such a firm is not required to submit to the PRA6 a further scheme of operations under this appendix unless SUP App 2.4, SUP App 2.5 or SUP App 2.8 applies. SUP App 2.13 and SUP 6 Annex 4 do, however, apply to such a firm.62
REC 6.5.2GRP
Where the FCA1 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order, it will discuss its concerns with the applicant with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application. If the FCA1 decides to refuse to make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) (which applies in consequence of section 290(5) of the Act (Recognition orders)) which
SUP 14.7.1GRP
Where an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier wishes to cancel its top-up permission, either with or without cancellation of its qualification for authorisation under Schedule 3, 4, or 5 to the Act, it should make an application following the procedures set out in SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part 4A2Permission).2