Related provisions for SUP 1A.4.7
281 - 300 of 718 items.
A person is exempt if he is an appointed representative of an authorised person. See SUP 12 (Appointed representatives). But where an appointed representative carries on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation he will not be exempt unless he is included on the register kept by the FCA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order (Duty to maintain a record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activities) (see PERG 5.13 (Appointed representatives
But under section 316 of the Act (Direction by a regulator) the general prohibition does not apply to a person who is a member of the Society of Lloyds unless the FCA or PRA has made a direction that it should apply. The general prohibition is disapplied in relation to any regulated activity carried on by a member relating to contracts of insurance written at Lloyds. Directions can be made by the FCA or PRA in relation to individual members or the members of the Society of Lloyds
Such a person may carry on regulated activities if the conditions outlined below are met, that is the person:(1) is not affected by an order or direction made by the FCA under section 328 or 329 of the Act (Directions and orders in relation to the general prohibition) which has the effect of re-imposing the general prohibition in any particular case;(2) is, or is controlled by, a member of a profession;(3) does not receive any pecuniary reward or other advantage from the regulated
A person carrying on regulated activities under the regime for members of the professions will be subject to rules made by the professional body designated by the Treasury. Such bodies are obliged to make rules governing the carrying on by their members of those regulated activities that they are able to carry on without authorisation under the Act. Where such a person is carrying on insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation, he must also be included on the register kept by
In
determining whether or not the conduct of an approved
person performing a significant
influence function under APER 4.6.5 E, APER 4.6.6 E and APER 4.6.8 E complies with Statement
of Principle 6,4 the following are factors which, in
the opinion of the appropriate
regulator,4 are to be taken into account:4(1) the
competence, knowledge or seniority of the delegate; and (2) the
past performance and record of the delegate.
An approved person performing a significant influence function will not
always manage the business on a day-to-day basis himself. The extent to which
he does so will depend on a number of factors, including the nature, scale
and complexity of the business and his position within it. The larger and
more complex the business, the greater the need for clear and effective delegation
and reporting lines. The appropriate
regulator4 will look to the approved person performing a significant-influence
function4
(1) An approved person performing a significant influence function may delegate
the investigation, resolution or management of an issue or authority for dealing
with a part of the business to individuals who report to him or to others.(2) The approved person performing a significant influence function should have
reasonable grounds for believing that the delegate has the competence, knowledge,
skill and time to deal with the issue. For instance, if the compliance department
only
The purpose of this chapter is to set out the requirements on firms to pay annual fees (through a general levy invoiced and collected by the FCA on behalf of FOS Ltd) and case fees (invoiced and collected directly by FOS Ltd) in order to fund the operation of the Financial Ombudsman Service.This Chapter4 also provides for unauthorised persons to pay case fees to FOS Ltd in respect of any relevant complaints which it handles.44
13The FCA performs part of its supervision work by reviewing and analysing information about firms' records of compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The type of report the FCA requires will vary, depending on the type of business a firm undertakes. This information helps the FCA to determine whether a firm is complying with the requirements applicable to its business, and what procedures it is operating to ensure its compliance.
(1) The report from a trustee of an AUT to the FCA13 must state, in relation to the manager of each AUT for which it is a trustee, the number of times during the quarter in which facts came to the firm's knowledge from which it appeared, or might have appeared, that the manager had failed (materially or otherwise) to: 13(a) give correct instructions to the trustee to create or cancel units in the AUT when the manager should have done so, and the error: (i) resulted in the creation
A benchmark submitter who suspects that any person(1) is manipulating, or has manipulated, a specified benchmark;(2) is attempting, or has attempted, to manipulate a specified benchmark; or(3) is colluding, or has colluded, in the manipulation or attempted manipulation of a specified benchmark;must notify the FCA without delay.
(1) The FCA expects the report required under MAR 8.2.12 R to be issued annually, although the FCA may agree a longer period depending on the benchmark submitter's particular circumstances, including the nature and scale of its engagement in the specified benchmark and the internal framework for monitoring compliance with the requirements of this chapter.(2) A benchmark submitter which proposes to appoint an auditor to report to the FCA under MAR 8.2.12 R on a less frequent than
Within the legal constraints that apply, the appropriate regulator2 may pass on to a skilled person any information which it considers relevant to the skilled person's function. A skilled person, being a primary recipient under section 348 of the Act (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by Authority etc.), is bound by the confidentiality provisions in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) as regards confidential information
2In respect of the appointment of a skilled person under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act, a contractual or other requirement imposed on a person to keep any information confidential will not apply if:(1) the information is or may be relevant to anything required to be done as part of the skilled person's appointment under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act;(2) a firm
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
Pursuant to the Financial Services
and Markets Act 2000 (Short Selling) Regulations 2012 (SI 2012/2554), the FCA will direct how notifications to use
the market maker exemption or
the authorised primary dealer exemption shall
be made. Such directions will be published on the FCA website and listed in FINMAR 2 Annex 1
G.
(1) If the FCA considers that a natural or legal
person ('P') who has notified the FCA of his intention to use either
the market maker exemption or
the authorised primary dealer exemption does
not satisfy the criteria to use the market
maker exemption or the authorised
primary dealer exemption, the FCA will send a letter to P setting
out the reasons why it is minded to prohibit P from using the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption.(2) P will be given
If P is not satisfied with the FCA's decision to prohibit P's use of
the market maker exemption or
the authorised primary dealer exemption,
P may seek a review of the decision. This will be conducted by a group of
at least three senior FCA staff. None of the group conducting
the review will have been connected with the earlier decision taken in respect
of P's use of the market maker exemption or
the authorised primary dealer exemption.
The review may take place after the expiry
23Firms proposing to offer arrangements involving some form of minimum underpinning or 'guarantee' should discuss their proposals with the FCA and1 HM Revenue and Customs1 at the earliest possible opportunity (see DISP App 1.5.8 G). The FCA will need to be satisfied that these proposals provide complainants with redress which is at least commensurate with the standard approaches contained in this appendix.
23One of the reasons for introducing the guidance in this appendix is to seek a reduction in the number of complaints which are referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service. If a firm writes to the complainant proposing terms for settlement which are in accordance with this appendix, the letter may include a statement that the calculation of loss and redress accords with the FCAguidance, but should not imply that this extends to the assessment of whether or not the complaint should
23'Relevant benefits' are those benefits that fall outside what is required in order that policyholders' reasonable expectations at that point of sale can be fulfilled. (The phrase 'policyholders' reasonable expectations' has technically been superseded. However, the concept now resides within the obligations imposed upon firms by FCA Principle 6 ('...a firm must pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly....') Additionally, most of these benefits would
APER 1.1A.7 G gives examples of the effect of APER 1.1A.1 P and APER 1.1A.2 P. The first column says whether the example involves an FCA-approved person and the second column says whether the example involves a PRA-approved person. So for example if there is a "Yes" in both columns that means that the example concerns a person who has been approved both by the FCA and by the PRA. The third column explains what functions APER covers in the scenario set out in the first two columns.
Table: Examples of what activities APER covers
FCA approved |
PRA approved |
Coverage of APER |
FCA-authorised person |
||
(1) Yes, in relation to firm A |
Not applicable |
Applies to the FCAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
Not applicable |
In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (1). However, APER does not apply to any function that the approved person carries on in relation to firm B even if that function relates to regulated activities carried out by firm B. However, if the function that he performs in relation to firm B is a controlled function the approved person and firm B may be subject to legal sanctions (see SUP 10A.13.1 G to SUP 10A.13.2 G). |
|
PRA-authorised person |
||
(3) Yes, in relation to firm A |
No |
The answer is the same as for scenario (1). |
(4) No |
Yes, in relation to firm A |
Applies to PRAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
(5) Yes, in relation to firm A |
Yes, in relation to firm A |
Applies to FCAcontrolled function and PRAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function. |
In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (5). However, APER does not apply to any function that the approved person carries on in relation to firm B even if that function relates to regulated activities carried out by firm B. However, if the function that he performs in relation to firm B is a controlled function the approved person and firm B may be subject to legal sanctions (see SUP 10A.13.1 G to SUP 10A.13.21G). |
||
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer1 or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's
An EEA firm (other than an EEA UCITS management company)2 that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. In the case of an EEA UCITS management company, FCA9 approval must first be obtained, as explained in SUP 13A.5.3 G (see also SUP 13A.3.1C G).2 However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification
(1) If it appears to the FCA that there is, or there may be, a breach of the listing rules or the disclosure rules and transparency rules4 by an issuer with a premium listing4, the FCA may in writing require the issuer to appoint a sponsor to advise the issuer on the application of the listing rules, the disclosure rules and the transparency rules4.4(2) If required to do so under (1), an issuer must, as soon as practicable, appoint a sponsor to advise it on the application of
The FSCS must allocate a compensation costs levy or specific costs levy, which has been allocated to the retail pool (under FEES 6.5.2-A R(2)):(1) to classes whose retail pool levy limit has not been reached as at the date of the levy;(2) in proportion to the relative sizes of the retail pool levy limits of the classes in (1); and(3) in accordance with the table in FEES 6 Annex 5.[Note: The retail pool levy limits for classes other than FCA provider contribution classes are the
(1) An allocation in FEES 6.5A.1 R to an FCA provider contribution class other than the home finance providers and administrators' contribution class may not be of an amount that, if it were added to any compensation costs levies or specific costs levies which have previously been imposed on the PRA funding class which corresponds to that FCA provider contribution class (as set out in FEES 6.5A.7 R) the combined figure would be greater than the levy limit of the corresponding
In relation to a specific costs levy or compensation costs levy allocated to an FCA provider contribution class in the retail pool, FEES 6.4.7A R (3) and FEES 6.5.6A R (3), respectively, are replaced by the following: "calculating, in relation to each relevant class, the participant firm's most recent regulatory costs arising from its membership of the corresponding activity group (as listed in FEES 4 Annex 1A R) set out in FEES 6.5A.7 R, as a proportion of the total most recent
The corresponding PRA funding classes and corresponding activity groups referred to in FEES 6.5A.2 R and FEES 6.5A.6 R respectively are as follows:
FCA provider contribution class |
Corresponding PRA funding class |
Corresponding activity group |
Deposit acceptor's contribution class |
Deposits |
A.1: Deposit acceptors |
Insurers - life contribution class |
Life and pensions provision |
A.4: Insurers - life |
Insurers - general contribution class |
General insurance provision |
A.3: Insurers - general |
Home finance providers and administrators' contribution class |
None |
A.2: Home finance providers and administrators |
The FCA5 expects to maintain a close working relationship with certain
types of firm and expects that
routine supervisory matters arising can be resolved during the normal course
of this relationship by, for example, issuing individual guidance where
appropriate (see SUP 9.3). However,
where the FCA deems it appropriate,
it will exercise its own-initiative powers:55(1) in
circumstances where it considers it appropriate for the firm to
be subject to a formal requirement,
breach
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative
powers in certain situations,5 including
the following:55(1) If
the FCA5 determines
that a firm's management, business
or internal controls give rise
to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements,
the FCA5may
seek to use its own-initiative
powers.555(2) If
a firm becomes or is to become
involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately
addressed by existing requirements,
Pursuant
to sections 55L, 55N, 55O, 55P and 55Q of the Act,
within the scope of its functions and powers, the FCA5may seek to impose requirements which
include but are not restricted to:55(1) requiring
a firm to submit regular reports
covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) where
appropriate, 5requiring a firm to
maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures,
foreign currency exposures or
liquidity
The FCA5 will seek to give a firm reasonable
notice of an intent to vary its permission or impose a requirement5 and to agree with the firm an
appropriate timescale. However, if the FCA5 considers
that a delay may create a risk to any of the FCA's statutory objectives5,3 the FCA5 may need to act immediately using its powers under section 55J and/or 55L5 of the Act5 with
immediate effect.5535555
(1) This chapter sets out the requirements that a person must follow in applying for an authorisation order for a scheme under regulation 12 of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation),2section 242 of the Act (Applications for authorisation of unit trust schemes) or section 261C of the Act (Applications for authorisation of contractual schemes)2.2(2) COLLG 3 (The FCA's responsibilities under the Act) and COLLG 4 (The FCA's responsibilities under the OEIC Regulations)
An application for an authorisation order in respect of an authorised fund must be:(1) in writing in the manner directed and contain the information required in the application form available from the FCA;(2) addressed for the attention of a member of FCA staff responsible for collective investment scheme authorisation matters; and(3) delivered to the FCA'saddress by one of the following methods:(a) posting; or(b) leaving it at the FCA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt;
1An EEA UCITS management company that proposes to act as the authorised fund manager2 of an AUT, ACS or2ICVC that is a UCITS scheme, should be aware that it is required under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act to apply to the appropriate regulator for approval to do so. The form that the firm must use for this purpose is set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom). In
The FCA anticipates that there will be only a few firms needing to seek approval for an individual to perform the significant management function set out in SUP 10A.9.1R (1). In most firms, those approved for the FCA governing functions, FCA required functions and, where appropriate, the systems and controls function or the equivalent PRA controlled functions, are likely to exercise all the significant influence at senior management level.
A proprietary trader undertakes activities with the firm'smoney and has the ability to commit the firm. By virtue of this role, all proprietary traders have potential to be able to exercise significant influence on the firm for the purposes of the definition of significant-influence function. Therefore, it is the FCA's expectation that all firms will assess all their proprietary traders to ascertain the ones for whom approval is required.
The question may arise whether a manager who is based overseas will be performing the significant management function under SUP 10A.9.9 R and should, therefore, be an FCA-approved person. This is especially true where the firm operates matrix management. The fact there is a person performing the apportionment and oversight function, and who has responsibility for activities subject to regulation by the FCA, may have a bearing on this. It is a factor to take into account when assessing
(1) 6Under paragraph 15A(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, an EEA UCITS management company intending to exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme must, before it undertakes that activity, obtain the FCA's10 approval to manage that UCITS scheme. Firms should use the application form set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom)
(1) A written notice from a Treaty firm under paragraph 5(2) of Schedule 4 to the Act must be: (a) addressed for the attention of the authorisations team in the PRA or FCA, as appropriate; and101010(b) delivered to the appropriate UK regulator10 by one of the methods in (2).10(2) The written notice may be delivered by:(a) post to either of the following addresses, as appropriate:1010(i) the address for notices to the FCA: The Financial Conduct Authority, 25 The North Colonnade,
A domestic UCITS merger between two or more UCITS schemes, or a cross-border UCITS merger between one or more UCITS schemes which is or are the merging UCITS and one or more EEA UCITS schemes, is permissible provided:(1) it is effected in accordance with the requirements of:(a) the UCITS Regulations 2011, which include the need for the FCA to have made a prior order approving the proposed merger (which may be made subject to (2)); and(b) this chapter; and (2) in the case of a
(1) The requirements and the process which must be followed to give effect to a proposal for a UCITS merger as specified by Chapter VI of the UCITS Directive (see articles 37 to 48) have been implemented in the United Kingdom by the provisions of Part 4 of the UCITS Regulations 2011. The main features of the regime as set out in those provisions include:(a) the different types of merger operation that will be recognised for a UCITS merger;(b) the need for the FCA to give prior
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a merging UCITS or a receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger must ensure that a document containing appropriate and accurate information on the merger is provided to the unitholders of that scheme so as to enable them to:(a) make an informed judgment about the impact of the proposal on their investment;(b) exercise their rights under regulation 12 (Right of redemption) of the UCITS Regulations 2011; and(c) where applicable,
(1) In a domestic UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date specified by the FCA in its order authorising the proposed merger in accordance with regulation 9 of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a cross-border UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date agreed by the FCA and the merging UCITS'Home State regulator.(3) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a domestic UCITS merger
(1) The authorised fund manager must, within four months after the end of each annual accounting period and two months after the end of each half-yearly accounting period respectively, make available and publish the long reports2 prepared in accordance with COLL 4.5.7R (1) to (3)2 (Contents of the annual long report) and COLL 4.5.8R (1) to (2)2 (Contents of the half-yearly long report).22(2) The reports referred to in (1) must:(a) be supplied free of charge to any person on request2;2(b)
(1) 4The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a feeder UCITS must:(a) where requested by an investor, provide copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS free of charge; and(b) file copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS with the
FCA
.(2) Except where an investor requests paper copies or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the annual and half-yearly long reports of its master UCITS may
(1) 7The authorised fund manager of a feeder NURS must, where requested by an investor or the
FCA
, provide to such person copies of the annual and half-yearly long reports (or nearest equivalent documents for a qualifying master scheme that is a recognised scheme) of its qualifying master scheme free of charge.(2) Except where an investor requests paper copies or the use of electronic communications is not appropriate, the annual and half-yearly long reports (or nearest equivalent
1If the FCA concludes that it should grant an FCA-authorised person's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FCA will:(1) cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission under section 55H(3) of the Act;(2) withdraw the firm'sauthorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and(3) update the firm's entry in the Financial Services Register to show it has ceased to be authorised.
In relation to adopting a reasonable approach to the time over which the payment shortfall or sale shortfall should be repaid,1the FCA takes the view that the determination of a reasonable repayment period will depend upon the individual circumstances. In appropriate cases this will mean that repayments are arranged over the remaining term. 11
Firms that propose to outsource aspects of customer relationships (including collection of debts or any other sums due1) should note that and SYSC 8,2 a firm cannot contract out its regulatory obligations and1 the FCA will continue to hold them responsible for the way in which this work is carried on.11