Related provisions for LR 8.7.9
121 - 140 of 258 items.
On:(1) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of a UK recognised body (or the commencement of any similar or analogous proceedings under the law of a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom); or(2) the appointment of a receiver, administrator, liquidator, trustee or sequestrator of assets of that body (or of any similar or analogous appointment under the laws of a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom); or(3) the making of a voluntary arrangement by that body with
The Principles
1 Integrity |
A firm must conduct its business with integrity. |
2 Skill, care and diligence |
A firm must conduct its business with due skill, care and diligence. |
3 Management and control |
A firm must take reasonable care to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively, with adequate risk management systems. |
4 Financial prudence |
A firm must maintain adequate financial resources. |
5 Market conduct |
A firm must observe proper standards of market conduct. |
6 Customers' interests |
A firm must pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly. |
7 Communications with clients |
A firm must pay due regard to the information needs of its clients, and communicate information to them in a way which is clear, fair and not misleading. |
8 Conflicts of interest |
A firm must manage conflicts of interest fairly, both between itself and its customers and between a customer and another client. |
9 Customers: relationships of trust |
A firm must take reasonable care to ensure the suitability of its advice and discretionary decisions for any customer who is entitled to rely upon its judgment. |
10 Clients' assets |
A firm must arrange adequate protection for clients' assets when it is responsible for them. |
11 Relations with regulators |
A firm must deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and must disclose to the appropriate regulator appropriately anything relating to the firm of which that regulator would reasonably expect notice. |
A UK recognised body need not give the FCA2notice of:2(1) routine inspections or visits undertaken in the course of regular monitoring, complaints handling or as part of a series of 'theme visits'; or(2) routine requests for information; or(3) investigations into the conduct of members of the UK recognised body or of other users of its facilities where the use of its facilities is a small or incidental part of the subject matter of the investigation.
If any civil or criminal legal proceedings are instituted against a UK recognised body, it must, unless REC 3.12.2 R applies, immediately give notice of that event and give the following information to the FCA:11(1) in the case of civil proceedings, the name of the claimant, particulars of the claim, the amount of damages and any other remedy sought by the claimant, and particulars of any allegation that any act or omission of that body was in bad faith; and(2) in the case of
The FCA3 expects to have an open, cooperative and constructive relationship with UK recognised bodies to enable it to have a broad picture of the UK recognised body's activities and its ability to meet the recognised body requirements.2 This broad picture is intended to complement the information which the FCA3 will obtain under section 293 of the Act (Notification requirements) or under notification rules made under that section (see REC 3). The FCA3 will usually arrange meetings
A firm should consider whether it should notify the FCA and the PRA (if it is a PRA-authorisedfirm) or the FCA (in all other cases) under Principle 11 if:(1) the firm expects or knows its auditor will qualify his report on the audited annual financial statements or add an explanatory paragraph; or (2) the firm receives a written communication from its auditor commenting on internal controls (see also SUP 15.3).
If a firm in relation to an exposure covered by BIPRU 13:(1) has an exposure of a non-standard type; or(2) an exposure that is part of a non-standard arrangement; or(3) has an exposure that, taken together with other exposures (whether or not they are subject to BIPRU 13), gives rise to a non-standard counterparty credit risk; or(4) is subject to the rule in BIPRU 13.2.1 R;it must notify the appropriate regulator as soon as practicable of that fact, the counterparty involved,
1Under
section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements
in the United Kingdom to facilitate
access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by
it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention
to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home
State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
The interests of a single person or entity which exceeds 10% of the issued shares (calculated exclusive of treasury shares) of any class of share in the capital of the open-ended investment company must, so far as they are known to it, be notified to a RIS as soon as possible following the open-ended investment company becoming aware of those interests.
1A UK RIE and an RAP2must immediately notify the FCA3of:3(1) significant breaches of its rules; or(2) disorderly trading conditions on any of its markets or auctions.2[Note: Article 26(2), first sentence (part) and Article 43(2), first sentence (part) of MiFID. The rest of Article 26(2), first sentence (in so far as it relates to market operators operating an MTF) and Article 43(2), first sentence of MiFID is implemented by REC 3.21.1 R (2)]
Sections 393 (Third party rights) and 394 (Access to FCA1 material) of the Act confer additional procedural rights relating to third parties and to disclosure of FCA1 material. These rights apply in certain warning notice and decision notice cases referred to in section 392 of the Act (Application of sections 393 and 394). The cases in which these additional rights apply are identified in DEPP 2 Annex 1 by asterisks; these are generally cases in which the warning notice or decision
If a certificate is granted then, until it is revoked, it is conclusive evidence that the exclusion under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. A person to whom a certificate is given should notify the FCA of any significant changes to the purpose or nature of the content of the relevant publication or service. The FCA will need to keep the content of the publication or service in question under review.
The RAP
regulations apply modified provisions of the Act to
an RAP. For example, an RAP is an exempt
person in respect of its business as an auction
platform due to the application of section 285 of the Act as modified by the the RAP
regulations. Similarly, section 293 of the Act is
applied and modified by the RAP regulations to
provide for notification rules and
notification requirements in relation to RAPs.
(1) This chapter contains requirements to report to the appropriate regulator66 on a regular basis. These requirements include reports relating to a firm's financial condition, and to its compliance with other rules and requirements which apply to the firm. Where the relevant requirements are set out in another section of the Handbook, this chapter contains cross references. An example of this is financial reporting for insurers and friendly societies.66(2) Where such requirements
(1) A firm may not apply BIPRU 3.2.25 R unless it has a core UK group waiver.22(2) [deleted]22(3) A firm may stop applying BIPRU 3.2.25 R or may stop applying it to some exposures.(4) [deleted]22(5) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator if it becomes aware that any exposure that it has treated as exempt under BIPRU 3.2.25 R has ceased to meet the conditions for exemption or if the firm ceases to treat an exposure under that rule.
In addition to the requirements set out in DTR 4.1 a listed company1 must include in its annual financial report1, where applicable, the following:1(1) a statement of the amount of interest capitalised by the group during the period under review with an indication of the amount and treatment of any related tax relief;(2) any information required by LR 9.2.18 R (Publication of unaudited financial information);(3) details of any small related party transaction as required by LR
(1) 4The effect of LR 9.8.6R (1) is that a listed company is required to set out a 'snapshot' of the total interests of a director and his or her connected persons, as at the end of the period under review (including certain information to update it as at a date not more than a month before the date of the notice of the annual general meeting). The interests that need to be set out are limited to those in respect of which transactions fall to be notified under the notification
In relation to an applicant firm wishing to rely on liquidity support from a parent undertaking constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, the appropriate regulator will ordinarily expect to reach agreement with the authority that regulates that undertaking for liquidity purposes in a number of areas, including agreement that:(1) it will notify the appropriate regulator of any material or persistent breaches by that undertaking of that authority's
In relation to the applicant firm in question, the appropriate regulator will, before granting a whole-firm liquidity modification, ordinarily expect to have reached agreement with that firm in a number of areas, including agreement that:(1) it will make available liquidity resources at all times to its UKbranch if needed;(2) it will make available to the appropriate regulator information in an appropriate format on firm-wide liquidity;(3) it will notify the appropriate regulator