Related provisions for BIPRU 7.8.4
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A firm must have clearly specified criteria for adjusting grades, pools or LGD estimates, and in the case of retail exposures and eligible purchased receivables, the process of allocating exposures to grades or pools, to reflect the impact of guarantees for the calculation of risk weighted exposure amounts. These criteria must comply with the minimum requirements referred to in BIPRU 4.10.43 R.[Note: BCD Annex VII Part 4 point 101]
(1) As the credit union'sgoverning body, the committee of management has responsibility for ensuring that the credit union complies with the requirements of SYSC 4.1.1 R (see CREDS 2.2.1 G and CREDS 2.2.2 G). So, the committee of management has overall responsibility for:(a) establishing objectives and formulating a business plan;(b) monitoring the financial position of the credit union;(c) determining and documenting policies and procedures;(d) directing and coordinating the
The main reasons why a credit union should maintain adequate accounting and other records are:(1) to provide the committee of management with adequate financial and other information to enable it to conduct its business in a prudent manner on a day-to-day basis;(2) to safeguard the assets of the credit union and the interests of members and persons too young to be members; (3) to assist officers of the credit union to fulfil their regulatory and statutory duties in relation to
UK firms should also note that changes to the details of branches may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the UK firm is subject. These changes should be communicated to the UK firm either by the Host State regulator, or, if the firm is passporting under Insurance Directives, via the PRA17.17
3In making appointments under this chapter and in allocating duties to actuaries, firms are reminded of their obligation under SYSC 2.1.1 R to maintain a clear and appropriate apportionment of significant responsibilities so that it is clear who has which of those responsibilities and that the business and affairs of the firm can be adequately monitored and controlled by the directors, relevant senior managers and governing body of the firm.
36Examples of rules being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23 R include the following:(1) BIPRU 4 imposes capital requirements that, for a PRA-authorised person such as a bank, are the exclusive responsibility of the PRA; accordingly this section is not applied by the FCA to a PRA-authorised person.(2) SYSC 6.1.1 R requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1 R should be interpreted:(a)
(1) The guidance relevant to delegation within the firm is also relevant to external delegation ('outsourcing'). A firm cannot contract out its regulatory obligations. So, for example, under Principle 3 a firm should take reasonable care to supervise the discharge of outsourced functions by its contractor.(2) A firm should take steps to obtain sufficient information from its contractor to enable it to assess the impact of outsourcing on its systems and controls.
In these rules:(1) an “R” in the margin or heading indicates that the provision is a rule, which creates binding obligations;(2) a “G” in the margin or heading indicates that the provision is guidance, which is designed to throw light on a particular aspect of these rules, but which is not binding nor an exhaustive description of a person's obligations.
A firm may treat contractual netting as risk-reducing only under the following conditions:(1) the firm must have a contractual netting agreement with its counterparty which creates a single legal obligation, covering all included transactions, such that, in the event of a counterparty's failure to perform owing to default, bankruptcy, liquidation or any other similar circumstance, the firm would have a claim to receive or an obligation to pay only the net sum of the positive and
(1) 1Under EMIR, where a firm that is a clearing memberof an authorised central counterparty defaults, the authorised central counterparty may:(a) portclient positions where possible; and(b) after the completion of the default management process:(i) return any balance due directly to those clients for whom the positions are held, if they are known to the authorised central counterparty; or(ii) remit any balance to the firm for the account of its clients if the clients are not
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those
(1) Certain requirements under MiFID are disapplied for:(a) eligible counterparty business;(b) transactions concluded under the rules governing a multilateral trading facility between its members or participants or between the multilateral trading facility and its members or participants in relation to the use of the multilateral trading facility;(c) transactions concluded on a regulated market between its members or participants.(2) Under PRIN 3.1.6 R, these disapplications may
A firm should establish and maintain appropriate systems and controls for the management of operational risks that can arise from employees. In doing so, a firm should have regard to:(1) its operational risk culture, and any variations in this or its human resource management practices, across its operations (including, for example, the extent to which the compliance culture is extended to in-house IT staff);(2) whether the way employees are remunerated exposes the firm to the
This chapter explains:(1) how a firm with a Part 4A permission7 can apply to the relevant regulator7 to vary that permission;77(2) how a firm which has ceased to carry on any of the regulated activities for which it has a Part 4A permission,7 or which expects to do so in the short term (normally less than six months), should apply to the relevant regulator7 to cancel that permission completely; 77(2A) how a firm with a Part 4A permission can apply to the relevant regulator to:7(a)
Afirm (with the exception of a sole trader who does not employ any person who is required to be approved under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements)),2 when allocating functions internally, must ensure that senior personnel and, where appropriate, the supervisory function, are responsible for ensuring that the firm complies with its obligations under the regulatory system1. In particular, senior personnel and, where appropriate, the supervisory function
In discharging its obligations under this section, a firm should also consider, together with any other relevant matters:(1) once a
safe custody asset2
has been lodged by the firm with the third party, the third party's performance of its services to the firm;2(2) the arrangements that the third party has in place for holding and safeguarding the safe custody asset;22(3) current industry standard reports, for example Financial Reporting and Auditing Group (FRAG) 21 report or