Related provisions for SUP App 3.3.8

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DISP 2.6.1RRP
(1) The Compulsory Jurisdiction covers complaints about the activities of a firm (including its appointed representatives) , of a payment service provider (including agents of a payment institution)or of an electronic money issuer (including agents of an electronic money institution) carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom.77(2) The Compulsory Jurisdiction also covers complaints about collective portfolio management services provided by an EEA UCITS management
DISP 2.6.2GRP
This:519(1) includes incoming EEA firms, incoming EEAauthorised payment institutions6, incoming EEA authorised electronic money institutions820 and incoming Treaty firms; but(2) excludes complaints about business conducted in the United Kingdom on a services basis from an establishment outside the United Kingdom (other than complaints about collective portfolio management services provided by an EEA UCITS management company in managing a UCITS scheme).7
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
SUP 13A.3.1GRP
Section 31 of the Act (Authorised persons) states that an EEA firm is authorised for the purposes of the Act if it qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights). Under paragraph 12 of Part II of that Schedule, an EEA firm that is an EEA pure reinsurer, or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation,75qualifies for authorisation without condition. Other than those two types of EEA firm, an7EEA firm qualifies
SUP 13A.3.1AGRP
3If an EEA MiFID investment firm seeks to use a tied agent established in the UK, the EEA MiFID investment firm will be treated as if it were seeking to establish a branch and must satisfy the establishment conditions (see SUP 13A.4.1 G).
SUP 13A.3.1CGRP
(1) 6Under paragraph 15A(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, an EEA UCITS management company intending to exercise an EEA right to provide collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme must, before it undertakes that activity, obtain the FCA's10 approval to manage that UCITS scheme. Firms should use the application form set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom)
SUP 13A.3.2GRP
(1) On qualifying for authorisation, subject to SUP 13A.3.1C G (1),6 an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 will have permission to carry on each permitted activity (see (3) below) which is a regulated activity.6(2) 6[deleted](3) The permitted activities of an EEA firm (except for an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)7 are those activities identified in the
SUP 13A.3.3GRP
An EEA firm which has qualified for authorisation is referred to in the Handbook as an incoming EEA firm.
DISP 1.1.1GRP
638This chapter contains rules and guidance on how respondents should deal promptly and fairly with complaints in respect of business carried on from establishments in the United Kingdom,11 by certain branches of firms in the EEA or by certain EEA firms carrying out activities in the United Kingdom under the freedom to provide cross border services.11 It is also relevant to those who may wish to make a complaint or refer it to the Financial Ombudsman Service.
DISP 1.1.3RRP
(1) Subject to DISP 1.1.5 R, this15 chapter applies to a firm in respect of complaints from eligible complainants concerning activities carried on from an establishment maintained by it or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom.15(2) For complaints relating to the MiFID business of a firm, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule:(a) apply to complaints from retail clients and do not apply to complaints from eligible complainants who are not retail
DISP 1.1.10ERRP
11For complaints related to collective portfolio management services of a UK UCITS management company for a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme, DISP 1.1.3R (1) applies, except where modified as follows:(1) the consumer awareness rules, complaints handling rules and complaints record rule apply in respect of complaints from Unitholders rather than from eligible complainants; and(2) the consumer awareness rules, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule, as modified
DISP 1.1.10FRRP
For complaints related to collective portfolio management services of an EEA UCITS management company for a UCITS scheme, DISP 1.1.3R (1) applies, except where modified as follows:(1) where the services are provided from a branch in the United Kingdom, the consumer awareness rules, complaints handling rules and complaints record rule apply in respect of complaints from Unitholders rather than from eligible complainants; and(2) this chapter, except the consumer awareness rules,
COLL 11.6.2RRP
(1) The commencement of winding up of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must take place no sooner than 3 months after a notification is made to its unitholders and, where applicable, the competent authorities of the feeder UCITSHome State, informing them of the binding decision to wind up the master UCITS.(2) Paragraph (1) is without prejudice to any provision of the insolvency legislation in force in the United Kingdom regarding the compulsory liquidation of AUTs or ICVCs.[Note:
COLL 11.6.5RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FCA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section
COLL 11.6.6RRP
(1) For the purposes of COLL 11.6.5R (1), a feeder UCITS will be considered as continuing to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS where:(a) the master UCITS is the receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger; or(b) the master UCITS is to continue materially unchanged as one of the resulting UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes in a proposed division.(2) For the purposes of COLL 11.6.5R (2), a feeder UCITS will be considered as becoming a feeder UCITS of another master UCITS
COLL 11.6.13RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note: articles 20(3)
FEES 4.4.9DRP
3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444
SUP App 3.10.8GRP
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
SUP App 3.10.9GRP
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
SUP App 3.10.10GRP
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom (see ), may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements
SUP App 3.10.12GRP
The financial promotion regime under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) may also apply to EEA insurance undertakings regardless of whether they carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom or passport into the United Kingdom.
PERG 2.7.6BGRP
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
REC 4.2B.1GRP
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
LR 17.5.1RRP
This chapter does not apply to a state, a regional or local authority and a public international body with listed debt securities except that such an issuer must comply with LR 17.3.2 R (Admission to trading).11
LR 17.5.2RRP
(1) 1This rule applies to a state, a regional or local authority and a public international body with listeddebt securities for whom the United Kingdom is its home Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive.(2) An issuer referred to in paragraph (1) that is not already required to comply with the transparency rules must comply with:(a) DTR 5.6.3 R (disclosure of changes in rights);(b) DTR 6.1.2 R (amendments to constitution);(c) DTR 6.1.3 R (2) (equality of treatment);(d)
REC 6A.1.1GRP
1Under section 312A of the Act, an EEA market operator may make arrangements in the United Kingdom to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market or multilateral trading facility operated by it if:(1) the operator has given its Home State regulator notice of its intention to make such arrangements; and(2) the Home State regulator has given the FCA3 notice of the operator's intention.3
REC 6A.1.3GRP
An EEA market operator has exempt person status as respects any regulated activity which is carried on as a part of its business of operating a regulated market or multilateral trading facility if the operator made arrangements in the United Kingdom on or before 31 October 2007 to facilitate access to, or use of, that regulated market or multilateral trading facility.
BIPRU 8.9A.3RRP
In relation to a firm, intra-group exposures that are exempt under a non-core large exposures group waiver may be excluded when calculating the limits in BIPRU 10.5 (Limits on exposures) that apply to the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, provided that the total amount of such exposures and the other exposures which are exempt under a non-core large exposures group waiver do not exceed the limit in BIPRU 10.9A.7 R (Non-trading book backstop large exposure limit for
LR 17.1.2GRP
An issuer, as described in LR 17.1.1 R includes:(1) a state monopoly;(2) a state finance organisation;(3) a statutory body; and(4) an OECD state guaranteed issuer.
LR 17.1.3GRP
A state, a regional or local authority or a public international body with listed debt securities should see LR 17.5 for its continuing obligations
SUP 13A.2.1GRP
A person will only be an EEA firm or a Treaty firm if it has its head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom. EEA firms and Treaty firms are entitled to exercise both the right of establishment and the freedom to provide services under the Treaty. The difference, however, is that an EEA firm has a right to passport under a Single Market Directive or the auction regulation2, whereas a Treaty firm carries on activities for which the right to carry on those activities
SUP 13A.2.2GRP
An EEA firm may passport those activities which fall within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive or the auction regulation2 as long as they are included in its Home State authorisation.
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by a competent authority no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made; and

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
ICOBS 3.2.1RRP
This section applies to a firm carrying on an electronic commerce activity from an establishment in the United Kingdom, with or for a person in the United Kingdom or another EEA State.
ICOBS 3.2.2RRP
A firm must make at least the following information easily, directly and permanently accessible to the recipients of the information society services it provides:(1) its name;(2) the geographic address at which it is established;(3) the details of the firm, including its e-mail address, which allow it to be contacted and communicated with in a direct and effective manner;(4) an appropriate statutory status disclosure statement (GEN 4 Annex 1 R), together with a statement which
ICOBS 3.2.8RRP
The requirements relating to the placing and receipt of orders do not apply to contracts concluded exclusively by exchange of e-mail or by equivalent individual communications.[Note: article 10(4) and 11(3) of the E-Commerce Directive]
BIPRU 8.4.9RRP
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or credit institution in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group .(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm must use the definition of own funds given in the CRD implementation measure of its EEA State for Article 16 of the Capital Adequacy Directive.(4)
BIPRU 8.4.10GRP
GENPRU 2.2 (Capital resources) says that a BIPRU investment firm with an investment firm consolidation waiver should calculate its capital resources on a solo basis using GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Capital resources table for a BIPRU investment firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision). GENPRU 2 Annex 6 requires a BIPRU investment firm to deduct contingent liabilities in favour of other members of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group. Therefore BIPRU 8.4.9R (5)(b) only
BIPRU 8.4.18RRP
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
SUP 13A.6.2GRP
An incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation and only provides services in the United Kingdom5) 4or incoming Treaty firm carrying on business in the United Kingdom must comply with the applicable provisions (see SUP 13A.4.4 G, SUP 13A.4.6 G,5 and SUP 13A.5.4 G) and other relevant UK legislation. For example where the business includes:(1) business covered by the Consumer Credit
SUP 13A.6.3GRP
In particular, an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) 4or Treaty firm must comply with the applicable provisions in SUP 10 (Approved persons). An EEA firm or Treaty firm should also refer to SUP 10.1 (Application) which sets out the territorial provisions of the approved persons regime.1
SUP 13A.6.4GRP
Under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, references in section 60 of the Act (applications for approval for persons to perform controlled functions) to "the authorised person concerned" include:33(1) an EEA MiFID investment firm whose Home State regulator has given a consent notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the authorised
MCOB 1.3.1RRP
Except as set out in this section, MCOB applies if the customer of a firm carrying on home finance activities2 is resident in:2(1) the United Kingdom; or(2) another EEA State, but in this case only if the activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom;at the time that the home finance activity2 is carried on.2
MCOB 1.3.4RRP
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those