Related provisions for SUP 10A.13.3

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GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
COLL 6.9.2GRP
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give FCA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC, its directors and depositary or a manager and a trustee of an AUT are referred to as "relevant parties" in this guidance.(2)
COLL 6.9.6GRP
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FCA will take into account whether the name of the
PERG 2.7.6BGRP
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
SUP 10A.6.16GRP
(1) This paragraph explains the basis on which the director function and the non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10A.6.8 R or SUP 10A.6.13 R.(2) The basic position is set out in SUP 10A.3.4 G. As is the case with all controlled functions, SUP 10A.6.8 R and SUP 10A.6.13 R are subject to the overriding provisions in SUP 10A.3.1 R, which sets out the requirements of section 59(1)
PERG 7.6.4GRP
The Act does not specify a time limit for processing the application but the FCA intends to deal with an application as quickly as possible. The more complete and relevant the information provided by an applicant, the more quickly a decision can be expected. But on occasion it may be necessary to allow time in which the FCA can monitor the content of the service. This might happen where, for example, a service is in a form that makes record keeping difficult (such as a large website
SUP 5.2.1GRP
Under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons), the appropriate regulator2 may, by giving a written notice, itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report, or 2require any of the following persons to provide it with a report by a skilled person:2(1) a firm; (2) any other member of the firm's group; (3) a partnership of which the firm is a member; (4) a person who has at any relevant time been a person falling within (1), (2) or (3);but only if the person
SUP 5.2.2GRP
2Under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the appropriate regulator may require a firm to appoint, or itself appoint, a skilled person to collect or update information.
SUP 4.4.4RRP
A firm must not appoint as appropriate actuary an actuary who has been disqualified by the FCA5 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA5) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm.55
SUP 4.4.5GRP
If it appears to the FCA or PRA5 that an appropriate actuary has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may have the power to and5 may disqualify him under section 345 or 345A respectively5 of the Act. A list of actuaries who have been disqualified may be found on the FCA5 website (http://www.fca.org.uk5).53325555
REC 6.5.1GRP
If the FCA1 considers that the requirements of the Act are satisfied, it may make a recognition order, which will state the date on which it takes effect.1
REC 6.5.2GRP
Where the FCA1 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition order, it will discuss its concerns with the applicant with a view to enabling the applicant to make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application. If the FCA1 decides to refuse to make a recognition order, it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions and revocation: procedure) (which applies in consequence of section 290(5) of the Act (Recognition orders)) which
REC 4.9.1GRP
(1) 1Under sections 312E and 312F of the Act, if the FCA considers that a recognised body has contravened a requirement imposed by the FCA under any provision of the Act that relates to a RIE, or under any provision of the Act whose contravention constitutes an offence the FCA has power to prosecute, or by a qualifying EU provision specified by the Treasury, it may: (a) publish a statement to that effect; or(b) impose on the body a financial penalty of such amount as it considers
REC 4.9.2GRP
(1) Under section 192K of the Act, if the FCA considers that a qualifying parent undertaking of a UK RIE has contravened a requirement of a direction given by the FCA under section 192C of the Act, or a provision of rules made by the FCA under section 192J of the Act, it may:(a) impose a penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on the qualifying parent undertaking of the UK RIE, or any person who was knowingly concerned in the contravention; or(b) publish a statement
REC 6.3.1GRP
Before making a recognition order, the FCA3 will need to be satisfied that the recognition requirements in section 292(3) of the Act (Overseas investment exchanges) have been met. These requirements are the only recognition requirements applicable to ROIEs3. 333
REC 6.3.2UKRP

Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:

2Section 292(3)

The requirements are that-

(a)

investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply withrecognition requirementsother than such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph3;

(b)

there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE]

3

(c)

the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and

3

(d)

adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated.

3

Section 292(4)

In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to-

3

(a)

the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated;

(b)

the rules and practices of the applicant.
PERG 9.1.3GRP
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
PR 2.5.2UKRP

Section 87B(1) of the Act sets out when the FCA may authorise the omission of information from a prospectus:

(1)

The [FCA] may authorise the omission from a prospectus of any information, the inclusion of which would otherwise be required, on the ground –

(a)

that its disclosure would be contrary to the public interest;

(b)

that its disclosure would be seriously detrimental to the issuer, provided that the omission would be unlikely to mislead the public with regard to any facts or circumstances which are essential for an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2); or

(c)

that the information is only of minor importance for a specific offer to the public or admission to trading on a regulated market and unlikely to influence an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).
PR 2.5.3RRP
A request to the FCA to authorise the omission of specific information must:(1) be in writing from the applicant;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for its omission; and(3) state why in the applicant's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 87B(1) of the Act applies.
PR 3.4.1UKRP

Section 87G of the Act provides that:

(1)

Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [FCA].

(2)

The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FCA] for its approval.

(3)

The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FCA] and ends –

(a)

with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

4(3A)

But where the prospectus relates both to an offer of transferable securities to the public and the admission of those securities to trading on a regulated market, subsection (3) does not apply and the relevant period beings when the prospectus is approved and ends with the later of -

(a)

the closure of the offer to the public to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

the time when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

(4)

"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).

(5)

Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and

(b)

the person on whose application the prospectus was approved.

(6)

A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it.

(7)

Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section.
PR 3.4.3RRP
1In the event that a requirement for a supplement is triggered, then as soon as practicable after the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy arises or is noted, a3person referred to in section 87G(2) of the Act must submit a supplementary prospectus referred to in that section to the FCA for approval.33
PR 1.1.6GRP
The following documents need to be considered together todetermine the effect of the prospectus directive:(1) Part 6 of the Act;(2) the PD Regulation;(3) these rules; and(4) the ESMA recommendations.33
PR 1.1.8GRP
In determining whether Part 6 of the Act, these rules andthe PD Regulation have2 been complied with, the FCA will take into account whether a person has complied with the ESMA recommendations.222
REC 4.2B.1GRP
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
PERG 7.7.4GRP
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FCA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FCA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).