Related provisions for SUP 8.3.13A
21 - 40 of 191 items.
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 of:35(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies);6(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;(d) a breach of a directly applicable provision in the MiFID Regulation;
3SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the appropriate regulator35to:35(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Regulators’35 general duty);35(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;(3) enforce
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition
order it will discuss its concerns with
the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to
make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G).
If the FCA5 decides
that it will not make a recognition order,
it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions
and revocation: procedure) or
(in the case of an RAP) regulation
5 of
Section 213(3)(b) of the Act requires the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons in order to meet its expenses. These expenses include in particular expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, in paying compensation, borrowing or insuring risks.
Section 224F of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons (or any class of authorised persons) in order to meet its management expenses incurred if, under Part 15A of the Act, it is required by HM Treasury to act in relation to relevant schemes. But those rules must provide that the FSCS can impose a levy only if the FSCS has tried its best to obtain reimbursement of those expenses from the manager of the
The9 provisions on the allocation of levies to classes9 up to their levy limits2 meet9 a requirement of section 213(5) of the Act that the appropriate regulator , in making rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies, must take account of the desirability of ensuring that the amount of the levies imposed on a particular class of authorised person reflects, so far as practicable, the amount of claims made, or likely to be made, in respect of that class of person.22229999
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FCA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
SYSC 9.1.1 R requires that a credit union takes reasonable care to make and retain adequate records of all matters governed by the Act, secondary legislation under the Act, or rules (including accounting records). These records should be capable of being reproduced in the English language and on paper.
The appropriate regulator is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under this section1 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the appropriate regulator's rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.1
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under SUP 4.3.1 R:(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform any other function on behalf of the firm which could give rise to a significant conflict of interest.
A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:4(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);4(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the
(1) The manager of an AUT has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the trustee upon:(a) the retiring manager appointing that person by deed as manager in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a manager; and(b) the new manager entering into such deeds as the trustee reasonably considers necessary or desirable to be entered into by that person in order to secure the due performance of
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision. SYSC 19A.3.53A R and1SYSC 19A.3.54 R (together with SYSC 19A Annex 1) are such rules1 and render1 void provisions of an agreement that contravene the specified
If a prospectus relating
to an issuer that has its registered
office in a country that is not an EEA State is
drawn up in accordance with the legislation of that country, the FCA may, if the United
Kingdom is the Home State in
relation to the issuer, approve
the prospectus if it is satisfied
that:(1) the prospectus has
been drawn up in accordance with international standards set by international
securities commission organisations, including the IOSCO disclosure standards;
and(2)
Energy market participants should bear in mind that Section 138A4 of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FCA4 must be satisfied that:44(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of any of the FCA's operational objectives.44
A person who ceased to be an underwriting member at any time on or after 24 December 1996 may, without authorisation, carry out contracts of insurance he has underwritten at Lloyds. But this is subject to any requirements or rules that the PRA may impose under sections 320 to 322 of the Act (Former underwriting members).
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note: articles 20(3)
Breaching Principle 11, or the rules in this chapter, makes a firm liable to regulatory sanctions, including discipline under Part XIV of the Act (Disciplinary Measures), and may be relevant to the use of the appropriate regulator's other powers, including the statutory information gathering and investigation powers (see further PRIN 1.1.7 G to PRIN 1.1.9 G). But, unlike a breach of a requirement imposed under the statutory powers listed in SUP 2.1.5 G, a breach of Principle 11
The FCA1 would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FCA1 could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:11(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information