Related provisions for BIPRU 7.8.29

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SUP 5.6.4GRP
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
DTR 5.8.5GRP
It may be necessary for both the relevant shareholder and proxy holder to make a notification. For example, if a direct holder of shares has a notifiable holding of voting rights and gives a proxy in respect of those rights (such that the recipient has discretion as to how the votes are cast) then for the purposes of DTR 5.1.2 R this is a disposal of such rights giving rise to a notification obligation. The proxy holder may also have such an obligation by virtue of his holding
DISP App 1.5.5GRP
23Firms will not be responsible for any increased costs resulting from the complainant choosing another product provider or for increased premiums charged by another provider chosen by the complainant in respect of the risk now presented, for example, higher premiums charged by the other provider due to deterioration in health, unless the original product provider no longer writes new business and is unable to offer revised life cover on a decreasing term assurance basis.
LR 5.4.3GRP
(1) An issuer that has the listing of any of its securities suspended may request the FCA to have them restored.(2) The request should be made sufficiently in advance of the time and date the issuer wishes the securities to be restored.(3) Requests received for when the market opens should allow sufficient time for the FCA to deal with the request.(4) The request may be an oral request. The FCA may require documentary evidence that the events that lead to the suspension are no
DTR 1A.2.2RRP
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify, a transparency rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
APER 1.1A.7GRP

Table: Examples of what activities APER covers

FCA approved

PRA approved

Coverage of APER

FCA-authorised person

(1) Yes, in relation to firm A

Not applicable

Applies to the FCAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function.

(2) Yes, in relation to firm A. No, in relation to firm B,

Not applicable

In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (1). However, APER does not apply to any function that the approved person carries on in relation to firm B even if that function relates to regulated activities carried out by firm B. However, if the function that he performs in relation to firm B is a controlled function the approved person and firm B may be subject to legal sanctions (see SUP 10A.13.1 G to SUP 10A.13.2 G).

PRA-authorised person

(3) Yes, in relation to firm A

No

The answer is the same as for scenario (1).

(4) No

Yes, in relation to firm A

Applies to PRAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function.

(5) Yes, in relation to firm A

Yes, in relation to firm A

Applies to FCAcontrolled function and PRAcontrolled function. Also applies to any other function performed for firm A in relation to the carrying on by firm A of a regulated activity even if it is not a controlled function.

(6) Yes, in relation to firm A. No, in relation to firm B,

Yes, in relation to firm A. No, in relation to firm B,

In relation to firm A, the answer is the same as for scenario (5). However, APER does not apply to any function that the approved person carries on in relation to firm B even if that function relates to regulated activities carried out by firm B. However, if the function that he performs in relation to firm B is a controlled function the approved person and firm B may be subject to legal sanctions (see SUP 10A.13.1 G to SUP 10A.13.21G).

COLL 7.7.15GRP
(1) An authorised fund manager may add other information to that which is required by COLL 7.7.10 R2 to COLL 7.7.14 R if it considers that it is relevant in the context of the proposed UCITS merger. For example, it may be appropriate for the information provided in accordance with COLL 7.7.13 R (3)(a) to contain a recommendation by the respective manager of an AUT or the directors of an ICVC as to the course of action the unitholders should take.2(2) Where an authorised fund manager
DTR 5.1.2RRP
Subject to the exemption for certain third country issuers (DTR 5.11.6 R), a person must notify the issuer of the percentage of its voting rights he holds as shareholder or holds or is deemed to hold 5through his direct or indirect holding of financial instruments falling within 2DTR 5.3.1R (1) , subject to the exemption in DTR 5.3.1R(2),58 and DTR 5.3.1R (2A), (or a combination of such holdings) if the percentage of those voting rights2:22(1) reaches, exceeds or falls below 3%,
REC 3.15.5GRP
Specified investments (other than securities or options in relation to securities) falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order will normally be regarded as being assets of the same type. Securities falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order which may be given the same generic description (for example, shares admitted to the UK official list) will normally be regarded as being of the same type. Options in relation
LR 15.2.4AGRP
1Although there is no restriction on an applicant taking a controlling stake in an investee company, to ensure a spread of investment risk an applicant should avoid:(1) cross-financing between the businesses forming part of its investment portfolio including, for example, through the provision of undertakings or security for borrowings by such businesses for the benefit of another; and(2) the operation of common treasury functions as between the applicant and investee compani
COLL 6.2.9GRP
(1) As the authorised fund manager normally controls the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of an authorised fund'sunits, it occupies a position that could, without appropriate systems and controls, involve a conflict of interest between itself and its clients.(2) SYSC 3.1.1 R (Systems and controls) requires that a firm take reasonable care to establish and maintain such systems and controls as are appropriate to its business and Principle 8 requires a firm to manage conflicts
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
REC 2.15.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules (including3 its settlement arrangements), the FCA3 may have regard to:33(1) the UK recognised body's ability to:(a) monitor and oversee the use of its facilities;(b) assess its members' compliance with its rules (and settlement arrangements, where appropriate);(c) assess the significance of any non-compliance;(d) take appropriate disciplinary action against
MAR 8.3.4GRP
The arrangements described in MAR 8.3.3 R should include measures designed to ensure the confidentiality of benchmark submissions and additional information received from benchmark submitters (to the extent that such submissions and information have not been made public by mutual agreement between the benchmark administrator and benchmark submitter), for example, through confidentiality agreements for the benchmark administrator's employees and members of the oversight commit
SUP 18.4.22GRP
SUP 18 Annex 1 provides an example of the information for members required by Schedule 15.
CASS 10.2.2GRP
For the purpose of CASS 10.2.1R (4), examples of individuals within the firm who are critical or important to the performance of operational functions include:(1) those necessary to carry out both internal and external client money and safe custody asset reconciliations; and(2) those in charge of client documentation for business involving client money and safe custody assets.
GEN 1.3.5GRP
GEN 1.3.2 R operates on the appropriate regulator's9rules. It does not affect the appropriate regulator's9 powers to take action against a firm in an emergency, based on contravention of other requirements and standards under the regulatory system. For example, the appropriate regulator9 may exercise its own-initiative power in appropriate cases to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission9 based on a failure or potential failure to satisfy the threshold conditions (see SUP 7 (Individual9
PRIN 1.2.6GRP
If the person with or for whom the firm is carrying on an activity is acting through an agent, the ability of the firm to treat the agent as its client under COBS 2.4.3 R3 (Agent as client) will not be available. For example, if a general insurer is effecting a general insurance contract through a general insurance broker who is acting as agent for a disclosed policyholder, the policyholder will be a client of the firm and the firm must comply with the Principles accordingly.
BIPRU 3.4.82GRP
(1) The application of BIPRU 3.4.81 R may be illustrated by an example. If a firm has a mortgage exposure of £100,000 secured on residential property in the United Kingdom that satisfies the criteria listed in BIPRU 3.4.56 R to BIPRU 3.4.80 R and the value of that property is £100,000, then £80,000 of that exposure may be treated as fully and completely secured and risk weighted at 35%. The remaining £20,000 may be risk weighted at 75% provided the exposure meets the criteria