Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.11

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MAR 8.2.10RRP
A benchmark submitter must:(1) keep for at least five years: (a) records of its benchmark submissions, as well as all information used to enable it to make a benchmark submission; and(b) reports on the key sensitivities the benchmark submitter may have regarding the specified benchmark it is submitting to, including (but not limited to) the benchmark submitter's exposure to instruments which may be affected by changes in the specified benchmark;(2) provide to the relevant benchmark
CASS 8.2.3GRP
(1) If a firm receives information that puts it in the position described in CASS 8.2.1 R (4) in order to effect transactions immediately on receiving that information, then such information could only amount to a mandate if the firm retainsit (for example by not destroying the relevant document):(a) after it uses it to effect those immediate transactions; or(b) because those transactions are not, for whatever reason, effected immediately.(2) If a firm receives information that
CASS 1A.3.3RRP
(1) Subject to (2), a firm must make and retain an appropriate record of the person to whom responsibility is allocated in accordance with CASS 1A.3.1 R, CASS 1A.3.1A R or CASS 1A.3.1C R (2)2.1(2) A CASS small firm must make and retain such a record only where it allocates responsibility to a person other than the person in that firm who performs the compliance oversight function.(3) A firm must ensure that the record made under this rule is retained for a period of five years
MCOB 6.9.11RRP
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
COLL 7.7.21GRP
(1) In a domestic UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date specified by the FCA in its order authorising the proposed merger in accordance with regulation 9 of the UCITS Regulations 2011.(2) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a cross-border UCITS merger, the effective date of the merger will be the date agreed by the FCA and the merging UCITS'Home State regulator.(3) For a UCITS scheme which is the receiving UCITS in a domestic UCITS merger
DEPP 4.1.12GRP
The secretariat to the senior staff committee will record and document all disclosures of potential conflicts of interest and the steps taken to manage them.
REC 2.1.4GRP

Location of recognition requirements and guidance

Recognition Requirements Regulations

Subject

Section in REC 2

Regulation 6

Method of satisfying recognition requirements

2.2

Part I of the Schedule

UK RIE recognition requirements

Paragraph 1

Financial resources

2.3

Paragraph 2

Suitability

2.4

Paragraph 3

Systems and controls

2.5

Paragraphs 4(1) and 4(2)(aa)2

2

General safeguards for investors

2.6

Paragraph 4(2)(a)

Access to facilities

2.7

Paragraph 4(2)(b)

Proper markets

2.12

Paragraph 4(2)(c)

Availability of relevant information

2.12

Paragraph 4(2)(d)

Settlement

2.8

Paragraph 4(2)(e)

Transaction recording

2.9

2Paragraph 4(2)(ea)

Conflicts

2.5

Paragraph 4(2)(f)

Financial crime and market abuse

2.10

Paragraph 4(2)(g)

Custody

2.11

Paragraph 4(3)

Definition of relevant information

2.12

2Paragraph 4A

Provision of pre-trade information about share trading

2.6

2Paragraph 4B

Provision of post-trade information about share trading

2.6

Paragraph 6

Promotion and maintenance of standards

2.13

Paragraph 7

Rules and consultation

2.14

2Paragraph 7A

Admission of financial instruments to trading

2.12

2Paragraph 7B and 7C

Access to facilities

2.7

2Paragraph 7D

Settlement

2.8

2Paragraph 7E

Suspension and removal of financial instruments from trading

2.6

Paragraph 8

Discipline

2.15

Paragraph 9

Complaints

2.16

2Paragraph 9A

Operation of a multilateral trading facility

2.16A

Part II of the Schedule

UK RIE default rules in respect of market contracts

2.174

COBS 16.3.11RRP
A firm must make, and retain, a copy of any periodic statement:(1) for MiFID or equivalent third country business, for a period of at least five years; or(2) for business that is not MiFID or, for a period of at least three years;from the date of despatch. [Note: see article 51(3) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
SYSC 13.8.7GRP
A firm should document its strategy for maintaining continuity of its operations, and its plans for communicating and regularly testing the adequacy and effectiveness of this strategy. A firm should establish:(1) formal business continuity plans that outline arrangements to reduce the impact of a short, medium or long-term disruption, including:(a) resource requirements such as people, systems and other assets, and arrangements for obtaining these resources;(b) the recovery
COBS 9.2.9RRP
(1) When recommending a small friendly societylife policy, a firm, for the purpose of assessing suitability, need only obtain details of the net income and expenditure of the client and his dependants.(2) A friendly societylife policy is small if the premium:(a) does not exceed £50 a year; or(b) if payable weekly, £1 a week.(3) The firm must keep for five years a record of the reasons why the recommendation is considered suitable.
MAR 1.2.12ERP
In the opinion of the FCA , the following factors are to be taken into account in determining whether or not information is generally available, and are indications that it is (and therefore not inside information):(1) whether the information has been disclosed to a prescribed market or a prescribed auction platform3 through a regulatory information service or RIS or otherwise in accordance with the rules of that market;(2) whether the information is contained
COLL 6.9.9RRP
A UCITS management company must not engage in any activities other than:(1) acting as:(a) an authorised fund manager of an authorised fund; or(b) an operator of any other collective investment scheme for which the firm is subject to prudential supervision;(2) activities for the purposes of or in connection with those in (1);(3) collective portfolio management, including without limitation:(a) investment management;(b) administration:(i) legal and fund management accounting services;(ii)
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.

SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 213 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344
SUP 3.10.13GRP
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the FCA. They do not apply to reports required by SUP 3.10 because of the specific provisions in SUP 3.10.12 R.
COLL 11.6.13RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note: articles 20(3)
PERG 4.5.17GRP
The FCA would normally expect an introducer to keep a written record of disclosures made to the borrower under article 33A of the Regulated Activities Order including those cases where disclosure is made on an oral basis only.