Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4
61 - 80 of 269 items.
(1) FCA3staff
are required by their contract of employment to comply with a code of conduct
which imposes strict rules to cover the handling of conflicts of interest
which may arise from personal interests or associations. FCA3 staff subject to a conflict of interest must declare that interest
to the person to whom they are
immediately responsible for a decision.33(2) If a member of a senior
staff committee has a potential conflict of interest in any
matter in which he is asked
The procedure for taking decisions
under executive procedures will
generally be less formal and structured than that for decisions by the RDC. Broadly, however, FCA3 staff responsible for taking statutory
notice decisions under executive
procedures will follow a procedure similar to that described
at DEPP 3.2.7 G to DEPP 3.2.27 G for
the RDC except that:3(1) in a case where the decision will
be taken by a senior staff committee: (a) the chairman or deputy chairman
of the senior
The FCA3 may also have regard to the systems and controls intended to ensure that confidential information is only used for proper purposes. Where relevant, recognised bodies will have to comply with section 348 (Restrictions on disclosure of confidential information by the FCA3 etc.) and regulations made under section 349 (Exemptions from section 348) of the Act.33
The FCA3 may also have regard to the contracts of employment, staff rules, letters of appointment for members of the governing body, members of relevant committees and other key individuals and other guidance given to individuals on handling conflicts of interest. Guidance to individuals may need to cover:3(1) the need for prompt disclosure of a conflict of interest to enable others, who are not affected by the conflict, to assist in deciding how it should be managed;(2) the circumstances
The information that the introducer must disclose to the borrower prior to making the introduction is, where relevant:(1) that he is a member of the same group as the person (N) to whom the borrower is introduced;(2) details of any payment which he will receive from N, by way of fee or commission, for introducing the borrower to N; and(3) an indication of any other reward or advantage arising out of his introducing to N.
In the FCA's view, the information condition in PERG 4.5.14G (3) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees and this and other relevant information may be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower, as appropriate.
Subject to CASS 5.5.41 R,
a firm that holds or intends
to hold client money with a
bank which is in the same group as
the firm must:(1) undertake
a continuous review in relation to that bank which is at least as rigorous
as the review of any bank which is not in the same group,
in order to ensure that the decision to use a group bank
is appropriate for the client;(2) disclose
in writing to its client at
the outset of the client relationship
(whether by way of a client agreement,4terms
of
A firm must
not undertake any transaction for a consumer5 that involves client money being
passed to another broker or settlement agent located
in a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom,
unless the firm has previously
disclosed to the consumer5 (whether in its terms of business, client agreement 4or otherwise in writing):554(1) that
his client money may be passed
to a person outside the United Kingdom but the client may
notify the firm that he does
not wish his money to be
(1) The firm must disclose to the consumer:(a) in good time before or, if that is not possible, immediately after the consumer is bound by a contract that attracts a right to cancel or withdraw; and(b) in a durable medium;the existence of the right to cancel or withdraw, its duration and the conditions for exercising it including information on the amount which the consumer may be required to pay, the consequences of not exercising it and practical instructions for exercising
(1) The information-sharing agreement referred to in COLL 11.5.1 R must include:(a) identification of the documents and categories of information which are to be routinely shared between both auditors;(b) whether the information or documents referred to in (a) are to be provided by one auditor to the other or made available on request;(c) the manner and timing, including any applicable deadlines, of the transmission of information by the auditor of the master UCITS to the auditor
Section 351A of the Act provides that where an auditor of an AUT which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding provisions for auditors of ICVCs that are feeder UCITS and master
The obligations to supply information to:(1) the FCA under either SUP 10A.14.8 R or SUP 10A.14.10 R;(2) another firm under SUP 10A.15.1 R;apply notwithstanding any agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)) or any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee's employment. A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its
Principle 2 is intended to ensure that listed companies have adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable them to comply with their obligations under the listing rules and disclosure rules and transparency rules. In particular, the FCA considers that listed companies should place particular emphasis on ensuring that they have adequate procedures, systems and controls in relation to:(1) identifying whether any obligations arise under LR 10 (Significant transactions) and
Timely and accurate disclosure of information to the market is a key obligation of listed companies. For the purposes of Principle 2, a listed companywith a premium listing1 should have adequate systems and controls to be able to:1(1) ensure that it can properly identify information which requires disclosure under the listing rules or disclosure rules and transparency rules in a timely manner; and(2) ensure that any information identified under (1) is properly considered by the
Deliberately
failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed
by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or
the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding
of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding,
falls within APER 4.1.2 E.
An issuer, person discharging managerial responsibilities or connected person should consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if they:
- (1)
are in doubt about how the disclosure rules apply in a particular situation; or
- (2)
consider that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a disclosure rule.
1Where a disclosure rule refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency.
Address for correspondence
Note: The FCA's address for correspondence in relation to the disclosure rules is:
Primary Market Monitoring |
Markets Division |
The Financial Conduct Authority |
25 The North Colonnade |
Canary Wharf |
London E14 5HS |
Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the appropriate regulator35appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the appropriate regulator35 would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group3535
A notification under SUP 15.3.11 R should include:(1) information about any circumstances relevant to the breach or offence;(2) identification of the rule or requirement or offence; and(3) information about any steps which a firm or other person has taken or intends to take to rectify or remedy the breach or prevent any future potential occurrence.
The notifications under SUP 15.3.17 R are required as the appropriate regulator35 needs to be aware of the types of fraudulent and irregular activity which are being attempted or undertaken, and to act, if necessary, to prevent effects on consumers or other firms. A notification under SUP 15.7.3 G should provide all relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.35
An issuer of securities other than shares admitted to trading on a regulated market must disclose to the public without delay any changes in the rights of holders of securities other than shares, including changes in the terms and conditions of such securities which could indirectly affect those rights, resulting in particular from a change in loan terms or in interest rates.[Note article 16(2) of the TD]
A firm which is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State may apply for a waiver from the relevant disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R. The appropriate regulator's approach to granting waivers is set out in the Supervision manual (see SUP 8).[Note: BCD Article 72(3)]
A firm applying for a waiver from one or more of the disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R will need to:(1) satisfy the appropriate regulator that it is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State; and(2) notify the appropriate regulator of the location where the comparable disclosures are provided.
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in that section;(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in good faith, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:(a) a criminal offence; or(b) a failure to comply with any legal
(1) A firm must provide the FCA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FCA) with a statement of the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted, as at or in the year to 31 December of the previous year as appropriate, in relation to the tariff base for each of the relevant industry
1The guidance on initial disclosure requirements at MCOB 4.4.2 G to MCOB 4.4.4 G may be relevant.Additional requirements for distance home purchase mediation contracts with retail customersNote: The rules regarding additional disclosure requirements for, and cancellation of, distance home purchase mediation contracts are set out in MCOB 4.5 and MCOB 4.6 respectively.
If, notwithstanding the steps taken by a firm to comply with MCOB 1.6.3 R, it transpires that a mortgage which the firm has treated as unregulated is in fact a regulated mortgage contract, the firm must as soon as practicable after the correct status of the mortgage has been established:(1) contact the customer and provide him with the following information in a durable medium:(a) a statement that the mortgage contract is a regulated mortgage contract subject to FCA regulation,
(1) MCOB 1.6.4 R(2) means, for example, that if a firm discovered immediately after completion that a loan was a regulated mortgage contract, the firm would be required to comply with MCOB 7.4 (Disclosure at the start of the contract).(2) Although MCOB 1.6.4 R recognises that firms may become aware that a mortgage is a regulated mortgage contract at a late stage, the FCA expects this to be an extremely rare occurrence. It could arise, for example, if a firm has acted on the understanding,
(1) MCOB 4.4 (Initial disclosure requirements) applies only in relation to varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract entered into by the customer in any of the following ways:(a) adding or removing a party;(b) taking out a further advance; or(c) switching all or part of the regulated mortgage contract from one interest rate to another.1(2) Otherwise, this chapter, MCOB 4, applies in relation to any form of variation of a regulated mortgage contract.
A person who wishes the FCA to vet an equivalent document referred to in PR 1.2.2 R (2) or (3) or PR 1.2.3R (3) or (4) must submit to the FCA:(1) a copy of the document;(2) a cross reference list identifying the pages in the document where each item that is equivalent to the disclosure requirements for a prospectus may be found;(3) contact details of individuals who are:(a) sufficiently knowledgeable about the documentation to be able to answer queries from the FCA; and(b) available
(1) 1A regulated sale and rent back firm, on first making contact with a potential SRB agreement seller for whom it might reasonably be expected to carry on any regulated sale and rent back activity, must make the following disclosures to him, both orally and in writing:(a) the service the firm is offering the customer, making it clear whether the firm will be acting as a SRB agreement provider, a SRB adviser or a SRB arranger and the particular regulated sale and rent back activities