Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4
21 - 40 of 419 items.
Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 36. Note that if a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a branch in that EEA State unless the firm has already established a branch in that EEA State (paragraph 20A of Schedule 3 to the Act).846
A UK firm other than a UK pure reinsurer9cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with
4If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to establish a branch has not notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to establish a branch in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, SUP 13.3.2 G (2) and SUP 13.3.2 G (3) do not apply. Accordingly, the UK firm may establish the branch to which its notice of intention8 relates as soon
(1) 8If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Banking Consolidation Directive or10MiFID8,10 the appropriate UK regulator20 will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure.8 The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice, except where paragraph 19(7A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act applies. Where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) If the appropriate UK regulator20 gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.20(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details or, 8if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the relevant EEA details8 (see SUP 13 Annex 18) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention8 (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).8888(3) 10Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FCA20
(1) If the appropriate UK regulator20 proposes to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(8) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to give the UK firm a warning notice.2020(2) If the appropriate UK regulator20 decides to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(12) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to give the UK firm a decision notice within three months8 of the date on which
10A UK firm seeking to provide collective portfolio management services from a branch in another EEA State, is advised that it will need to refer to the rules of the competent authority of the UCITS Home State implementing article 20 of the UCITS Directive which will require it to submit to that competent authority information relating to its depositary agreement and certain delegation arrangements.
The purpose of REC 3.14 is to ensure that the FCA3is informed of planned changes to the services a UK recognised body intends to provide and of the normal hours of operation of those services. Unplanned suspensions of those services, unplanned changes in hours of operation and events causing a UK recognised body to be unable to provide those services should be notified to the FCA3under the rules in REC 3.15.33
Where a UK RIE proposes to admit to trading (or to cease to admit to trading) by means of its facilities:(1) a specified investment (other than a security or an option in relation to a security); or(2) a type of security or a type of option in relation to a security; it must give the FCA3notice of that event, and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14.6 R to the FCA3, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or
Where a UK recognised body proposes to provide (or to cease to provide) clearing facilitation services3 in respect of:3(1) a specified investment (other than a security or an option in relation to a security); or (2) a type of security or a type of option in relation to a security;it must give the FCA3notice of that event and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14.6 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members
Securities falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order which may be given the same generic description (for example, shares admitted to the UKofficial list) will normally be regarded as being of the same type. Options in relation to the same type of security will normally be regarded as being options of the same type.
The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.14.2 R and REC 3.14.3 R:(1) a description of the specified investment to which the proposal relates; (2) where that specified investment is a derivative, the proposed terms of that derivative; and (3) in the case of a UK RIE which is admitting that specified investment to trading, the name of any RCH which will provide clearing services in respect of that specified investment under an agreement with that UK RIE.
Where:(1) a UK RIE proposes to amend the standard terms of any derivative admitted to trading by means of its facilities; or (2) a UK RIE3 proposes to amend the standard terms relating to any derivative in respect of which it provides clearing facilitation services;3333it must give the FCA3notice of that event, and written particulars of those proposed amendments, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class
Where a UK recognised body proposes to make (or to cease to make) arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to any other person (other than an undertaking in the same group), that recognised body must give the FCA3notice of that event, and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14.9 R, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders (or any group or class of them).3
The FCA3does not need to be notified of proposals to offer (or to withdraw offers of) safeguarding and administration services for individual assets of the same type. Specified investments (other than securities) falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order will normally be regarded as being of the same type. Securities falling within the same article in Part III of the Regulated Activities Order which may be given the same generic description
Where a UK recognised body proposes to change its normal hours of operation or (for RAPs) the timing, frequency or duration of its bidding windows,2 it must give the FCA3 notice of that proposal, and particulars of, and the reasons for, the actions proposed, at the same time as the proposal is first formally communicated to its members or shareholders, or any group or class of them.3
A UK firm, other than a UK pure reinsurer,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the
8A MiFID investment firm that wishes to obtain a passport for the activity of operating an MTF should follow the procedures described in this chapter. A UK market operator that operates a recognised investment exchange, a recognised auction platform (pursuant to the RAP regulations, the definition of regulated market in the Act is read for these purposes as including a recognised auction platform)11 or an MTF and wishes to provide cross border services into another EEA State should
8(1) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives from MiFID8, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to send a copy of the notice of intention8 to the Host State Regulator within one month8 of receipt.8A UK firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive10 may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).8882088810(2)
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
10A UK firm seeking to provide collective portfolio management services in another EEA State under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that it will need to refer to the rules of the competent authority of the UCITS Home State implementing article 20 of the UCITS Directive which will require it to submit to that competent authority information relating to its depositary agreement and certain delegation arrangements.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.13 is to enable the FCA2to monitor any significant instances where UK recognised bodies outsource their functions to other persons (as permitted 1under Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations or, in relation to an RAP, under regulation 13 of the RAP regulations1. See REC 2.2 and REC 2A.2).121(2) The FCA2does not need to be notified of every instance of outsourcing by a UK recognised body, but only where an activity or activities which
Where a UK recognised body makes an offer or agrees to delegate any of its relevant functions to another person, it must immediately give the FCA2notice of that event, and:2(1) inform the FCA2of the reasons for that delegation or proposed delegation;2(2) inform the FCA2of the reasons why it is satisfied that it will continue to meet the recognition requirements or (for an RAP) RAPrecognition requirements1 following that delegation;2(3) where it makes such an offer by issuing a
Recognition Requirements Regulations, Regulation 6
2(1) In considering whether a [UK recognised body] or applicant satisfiesrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations], the [FCA]3 may take into account all relevant circumstances including the constitution of the person concerned and its regulatory provisions within the meaning of section 300E3 of the Act. 33 |
(2) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraph (1), a [UK recognised body] or applicant may satisfyrecognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations] by making arrangements for functions to be performed on its behalf by any otherperson. |
(3) Where a [UK recognised body] or applicant makes arrangements of the kind mentioned in paragraph (2), the arrangements do not affect the responsibility imposed by the Act on the [UK recognised body] or applicant to satisfy recognition requirements applying to it under these [Recognition Requirements Regulations ], but it is in addition a recognition requirement applying to the [UK recognised body] or applicant that the person who performs (or is to perform) the functions is a fit and proper person who is able and willing to perform them. |
The FCA3 will usually expect :3(1) the constitution, regulatory provisions and practices of the UK recognised body or applicant;(2) the nature (including complexity, diversity and risk) and scale of the UK recognised body's or applicant's business; (3) the size and nature of the market which is supported by the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities; (4) the nature and status of the types of investor who use the UK recognised body's or applicant's facilities or have an
It is the UK recognised body's responsibility to demonstrate to the FCA3 that a person who performs a function on behalf of the UK recognised body is fit and proper and able and willing to perform that function. The recognition requirement referred to in Regulation 6(3) applies to the UK recognised body and not to any person who performs any function on its behalf. In this context, for a person to be "fit and proper" does not necessarily imply that he is an authorised person,
If a person who performs a function on behalf of a UK recognised body is himself carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom , he will, unless he is a person to whom the general prohibition does not apply, need to be either an authorised person or an exempt person . The person to whom a function is delegated is not covered by the UK recognised body's exemption.
In determining whether the UK recognised body meets the recognition requirement in Regulation 6(3), the FCA3 may have regard to whether that body has ensured that the person who performs that function on its behalf:3(1) has sufficient resources to be able to perform the function (after allowing for any other activities);(2) has adequate systems and controls to manage that function and to report on its performance to the UK recognised body;(3) is managed by persons of sufficient
In determining whether a UK recognised body continues to satisfy the recognition requirements where it has made arrangements for any function to be performed on its behalf by any person , the FCA3 may have regard, in addition to any of the matters described in the appropriate section of this chapter, to the arrangements made to exercise control over the performance of the function, including:3(1) the contracts (and other relevant documents) between the UK recognised body and the
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to activities that are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a client is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom, the question
Even with a cross-border element a person may still be carrying on an activity 'in the United Kingdom'. For example, a person who is situated in the United Kingdom and who is safeguarding and administering investments will be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom even though his client may be overseas.
Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out five additional cases. The Act states that, in these five cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
A person who is based outside the United Kingdom but who sets up an establishment in the United Kingdom must therefore consider the following matters. First, he must not, unless he is authorised, carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Second, unless he is authorised, the day-to-day management of the carrying on of the regulated activity must not be the responsibility of the UK establishment. This may, for example, affect those UK establishments that in the context
A person based outside the United Kingdom may also be carrying on activities in the United Kingdom even if he does not have a place of business maintained by him in the United Kingdom (for example, by means of the internet or other telecommunications system or by occasional visits). In that case, it will be relevant to consider whether what he is doing satisfies the business test as it applies in relation to the activities in question. In addition, he may be able to rely on the
A firm will not be a member of a non-EEA sub-group unless it is1 also a member of a UK consolidation group. So the first step is to identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it isan institution, financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country banking or investment services undertaking);(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a BIPRU
The firm should then identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it is an institution, financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country investment services undertaking);(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group; or(b) a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group
Having identified potential non-EEA sub-groups for each third country banking or investment services undertaking in its UK consolidation group the firm should then eliminate overlapping potential non-EEA sub-groups in the following way. If:(1) one potential non-EEA sub-group is 1contained within a wider potential non-EEA sub-group; and(2) the third country banking or investment services undertakings in the two potential non-EEA sub-groups are the same;then the smaller potential
If a UK consolidation group is headed by a parent financial holding company in a Member State the result of the elimination process may be that a firm'sUK consolidation group contains only one non-EEA sub-group and that the non-EEA sub-group is the same as the UK consolidation group. In theory that means that there are two sets of consolidation requirements, one in relation to the UK consolidation group and one in relation to the non-EEA sub-group. However as the UK consolidation
Even where the requirements for a non-EEA sub-group are absorbed into those for the UK consolidation group a firm should still make clear in its regulatory reporting that the consolidation figures relate to a UK consolidation group and a non-EEA sub-group and that they both contain the same members.
The examples in this section have so far assumed that the only EEA State involved is the United Kingdom. If a potential non-EEA sub-group that would otherwise be regulated by the appropriate regulator contains a potential non-EEA sub-group in another EEA State then the United Kingdom one is eliminated if the third country banking or investment services undertaking in the UK potential non-EEA sub-group and the potential non-EEA sub-group in the other EEA State are the same. The
(1) Before an EEA firm5(other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)53exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act,
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include the appropriate UK regulator's11rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.11
(1) 11Where the PRA receives a consent notice, it will give a copy to the FCA without delay, and where the FCA receives a consent notice it will give a copy to the PRA, where relevant, without delay.(2) In a case where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, the consent of the PRA is required for any notification by the FCA which relates to:(a) a PRA-regulated activity;(b) a PRA-authorised person; or(c) a person whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
The sole purpose of the notification in SUP 13A.4.5 R is to enable the FSA to supervise the UK branch of the incoming EEA firm's compliance with the applicable provisions on an ongoing basis. The applicable provisions that apply to that branch are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 G (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).
Sections 178(1) and 191D(1)10 of the Act require a person (whether or not he is an authorised person) to notify the appropriate regulator17 in writing if he decides 10to acquire, increase or reduce10control or to cease to have control10 over a UK domestic firm . Failure to notify is an offence under section 191F10 of the Act (Offences under this Part).46101710101010
If a person decides10 to acquire control or increase control over a UK domestic firm in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 Ror acquire control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2AR (1)4, he must obtain the appropriate regulator's17 approval before doing so. Making an acquisition before the appropriate regulator17 has approved of it10is an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).10101710174610
6The appropriate regulator17 may treat as notice given in accordance with sections 178 and 191D17 of the Act a written notification from a firm which contains the following statements:171017(1) that the firm proposes to acquire and/or dispose of control, on one or more occasions, of any UK domestic firm whose shares or those of its ultimate parent undertaking are, at the time of the acquisition or disposal of control, listed or which are admitted to listing on a designated investment
6Where the appropriate regulator17 approves changes in control proposed in a notice given under SUP 11.3.5B D:17(1) the controller remains subject to the requirement to notify the appropriate regulator17 when a change in control actually occurs; and17(2) the notification of change in control should be made no later than five business days after the end of each month and set out all changes in the controller's control position for each UK domestic firm for the month in question.At
A section 178 notice10 given to the appropriate regulator17 by a person who is acquiring control or increasing his control over a UK domestic firm, in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 R (1) to (4), or acquiring control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2A R, must contain the information and be accompanied by such documents as are required by the controllers form approved by the appropriate regulator17 for the relevant application. 4610171017
10A notice given to the appropriate regulator17 by a person who is reducing or ceasing to have control over a UK domestic firm, as set out in SUP 11.4.2Ror SUP 11.4.2A R must:17(1) be in writing; and(2) provide details of the extent of control (if any) which the controller will have following the change in control.
(1) The purposes of this section are to:(a) provide UK recognised bodies with guidance regarding the provisions of PIDA; and(b) Encourage UK recognised bodies to consider adopting and communicating to workers appropriate internal procedures for handling workers' concerns as part of an effective risk management system.(2) In this section "worker" includes, but is not limited to, an individual who has entered into a contract of employment.
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in that section;(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in good faith, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:(a) a criminal offence; or(b) a failure to comply with any legal
(1) UK recognised bodies are encouraged to consider adopting appropriate internal procedures which will encourage their workers with concerns to blow the whistle internally about matters which are relevant to the functions of the FCA.22(2) In considering appropriate internal procedures, UK recognised bodiesmay find the guidance provided to firms in SYSC 18.2.2 G (2) and SYSC 18.2.2 G (3)1 helpful.1
The FCA will not grant an investment firm consolidation waiver unless:(1) the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group meets the conditions for being a CAD Article 22 group;(2) the FCA is satisfied that each BIPRU firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group will be able to meet its capital requirements using the calculation of capital resources in GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Capital resources table for a BIPRU investment firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision);
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver with respect to its UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group but that UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group ceases to meet the definition of a CAD Article 22 group the firm must comply with the rest of this chapter rather than this section notwithstanding the investment firm consolidation waiver.
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or credit institution in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group .(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm must use the definition of own funds given in the CRD implementation measure of its EEA State for Article 16 of the Capital Adequacy Directive.(4)
GENPRU 2.2 (Capital resources) says that a BIPRU investment firm with an investment firm consolidation waiver should calculate its capital resources on a solo basis using GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Capital resources table for a BIPRU investment firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision). GENPRU 2 Annex 6 requires a BIPRU investment firm to deduct contingent liabilities in favour of other members of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group. Therefore BIPRU 8.4.9R (5)(b) only
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must ensure that any financial holding company in the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group that is the UKparent financial holding company in a Member State of a CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group has capital resources, calculated under BIPRU 8.4.12 R, in excess of the sum of the following (or any higher amount specified in the investment firm consolidation waiver):(1) the sum
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FCA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
Although an investment firm consolidation waiver switches off most of this chapter, a firm should still carry out the capital adequacy calculations in BIPRU 8.3 to BIPRU 8.8 as if those parts of this chapter still applied to the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and report these to the FCA. It should also still monitor large exposure risk on a consolidated basis.
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A
1(1) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must also operate a regulated market. |
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(2) |
[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility must comply with those requirements of- |
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(a) |
Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID], and |
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(b) |
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which are applicable to a market operator ... operating such a facility. |
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(3) |
The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses). |
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1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility complies with those requirements of Chapter I of Title II of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive which are applicable to a market operator operating such a facility, the FCA2 will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements.2
This chapter applies to a UK firm, that is, a person whose head office is in the United Kingdom and which is entitled to carry on an activity in another EEA State subject to the conditions of a Single Market Directive. Such an entitlement is referred to in the Act as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as passporting.1
This chapter also applies to a UK firm which wishes to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, Gibraltar. The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Gibraltar) Order 2001 provides that a UK firm is to be treated as having an entitlement corresponding to its EEA right, to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, Gibraltar under any of the Single Market Directives. So, references in this chapter to an EEA State or an EEA right include
This chapter does not apply to:(1) a firm established in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; passporting by such a firm in or into the United Kingdom is a matter for its Home State regulator although guidance is given in 4SUP 13A4 (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act);(2) other overseas firms (that is, overseas firms established outside the EEA); such firms are not entitled to passport into another EEA State and, where relevant, may need to obtain authorisation
9Other than the notification requirements in SUP 13.5.1AA R and SUP 13.5.2-A R and the related guidance in SUP 13.5.1B G, SUP 13.5.2A G and SUP 13.5.7 G, this chapter does not apply to a UK firm in relation to its exercise of an EEA right under the auction regulation to provide services or establish a branch in another EEA state. This is because a UK firm is not subject to the requirements in Schedule 3 to the Act in respect of its exercise of that EEA right.
This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.
The chapter also explains how a UK firm which has already established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, another EEA State, may change the details of its branch or of the cross border services it is providing: for example, where a UK firm wishes to establish additional branches in an EEA State in which it has already established a branch where this would result in a change to the details provided previously. Such changes are governed by the EEA Passport Rights
If transferable securities are admitted to trading in more than one EEA State including the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed:(1) in English; and(2) either in a language accepted by the competent authorities of each Host State or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer. [Note: article 20(2) of the TD]
(1) If transferable securities are admitted to trading in one or more EEA States excluding the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either:(a) in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those Host States; or(b) in a language customary in the sphere of international finance,at the choice of the issuer.(2) Where the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either in English or
If transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,000 euros1 (or an equivalent amount) are admitted to trading in the United Kingdom or in one or more EEA States, regulated information must be disclosed to the public in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer or of the person who, without the issuer's consent,
A firm must include only the following types of undertaking in a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group for the purposes of this chapter:(1) a BIPRU firm;(2) an institution;(3) a financial institution;(4) an asset management company;(5) a financial holding company; and(6) an ancillary services undertaking.
Although an undertaking falling outside BIPRU 8.5.1 R will not be included in a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group it may be relevant in deciding whether one undertaking in the banking sector or the investment services sector is a subsidiary undertaking of another with the result that they should be included in the same UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group.
In carrying out the calculations for the purposes of this chapter a firm must only include the relevant proportion of an undertaking that is a member of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group:(1) by virtue of a consolidation Article 12(1) relationship;(2) by virtue of an Article 134 relationship; or(3) because the group holds a participation in it.
In BIPRU 8.5.5 R, the relevant proportion is either:(1) (in the case of a participation) the proportion of shares issued by the undertaking held by the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group; or(2) (in the case of a consolidation Article 12(1) relationship or an Article 134 relationship), such proportion (if any) as stated in the Part 4A permission of the firm.
A firm may, having first notified the appropriate regulator in writing in accordance with SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification), exclude an institution, asset management company, financial institution or ancillary services undertaking that is a subsidiary undertaking in, or an undertaking in which a participation is held by, the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group if the balance sheet total of that undertaking is less than the smaller of the following two amounts:(1)
Article 73(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive allows the appropriate regulator to decide to exclude an institution, financial institution, asset management company or ancillary services undertaking that is a subsidiary undertaking in, or an undertaking in which a participation is held by, the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group for the purposes of this chapter in the following circumstances:(1) where the head office of the undertaking concerned is situated in a
(1) The operator of a recognised scheme under section 264, section 270 or section 272 of the Act must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom in order to satisfy the requirements of COLL 9.4.2 R to COLL 9.4.6 R. (2) In this section, a facility is a place of business that complies with COLL 9.4.6 R (Place of facilities).
(1) The operator of a recognised scheme must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom for any person, for inspection (free of charge) and for the obtaining (free of charge, in the case of the documents at (c) and (d), and otherwise at no more than a reasonable charge) of copies in English of: (a) the instrument constituting the scheme;(b) any instrument amending the instrument constituting the scheme; (c) the latest prospectus (which must include the address where the facilities
(1) The operator must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom for any person where: (a) information in English can be obtained about prices of units in the scheme; and(b) a participant may redeem or arrange for redemption of units in the scheme and obtain payment. (2) An operator is treated as complying with paragraph (1) if it ensures participants may sell their units on an investment exchange at a price not significantly different from net asset value; and if so, must inform
(1) The operator must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom at which the unitholder of a bearer certificate may obtain free of charge: (a) payment of dividends; and(b) details or copies of any notices which have been given or sent to participants in the scheme. (2) The operator must state:(a) the nature of the right represented by the units in the scheme; and(b) whether persons other than unitholders can vote at meetings of unitholders and, if so, who those persons are.
(1) The address of the facilities maintained by the operator in accordance with this section and the details of the facilities so maintained must be stated in the prospectus of the scheme.(2) The address of the facilities referred to in (1) must be the address of the operator's principal place of business in the United Kingdom, or, if there is no such address,, the alternative address in paragraph (3).(3) The alternative address is such convenient address as the operator determines,
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a key individual, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FCA.3 [Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]3
(1) Key individuals include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a key individual.(2) A key individual need not be an employee of a
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his date of birth;(3) where applicable, a description of the responsibilities which he will have in the post to which he is to be appointed or elected, including for a UK RIE which operates an RAP where the person has responsibilities both in the UK RIE and RAP, a description of the responsibilities he has in respect of each body.3[Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give the FCA3 the following information:33(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FCA.333
If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in more than one EEA State including
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in English and must also be made available either in a language
accepted by the competent authorities of each Host
State or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [Note: article
19.3
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
If admission
to trading of non-equity transferable
securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount)
is sought in the United Kingdom or
in one or more other EEA States,
the prospectus must be drawn
up in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host
States or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as
If:(1) an offer is
made in the United Kingdom;(2) a prospectus relating
to the transferable securities has
been approved by the competent authority of another EEA
State and the prospectus contains
a summary; and(3) the prospectus is drawn up in a language other than English
that is customary in the sphere of international finance;222the offeror must
ensure that the summary is
translated into English. [ Note: article
19.2 PD ]
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must in relation to that activity comply with the rules which relate to:(1) the organisation of the management company, including delegation arrangements;(2) risk-management procedures;(3) prudential rules and supervision;(4) operating conditions; and(5) reporting requirements.[Note: article 19(1) of the UCITS Directive]
A UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme must decide and be responsible for adopting and implementing all the arrangements and organisational decisions that are necessary to ensure compliance with rules drawn up by the EEA State in which that scheme is established, in implementation of its obligations under articles 19(3) and 19(4) of the UCITS Directive.[Note: article 19(6) of the UCITS Directive]
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
(1) A UK UCITS management company which applies to operate an EEA UCITS scheme in another EEA State is advised that it must comply with the requirements of the Host State regulator regarding provision to them of the following documents:(a) the written agreement it has entered into with the depositary of the EEA UCITS scheme, as referred to in articles 23 and 33 of the UCITS Directive; and(b) information on delegation arrangements (if any), regarding functions of investment management
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.1
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FCA1notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
The purpose of REC 3.6.6 R is to ensure that the FCA1is informed of changes to agreements which specify the arrangements by which a UK recognised body will be governed or by which important decisions will be taken within that body. It is not intended to cover any agreement by which someone is appointed to be a key individual or which covers the terms and conditions of service in such an appointment.1