Related provisions for PERG 2.1.1
21 - 40 of 137 items.
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
Section 39 of the Act makes provision exempting appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is a party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires the appointed representative to carry on certain regulated activities. SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains guidance relating to appointed representatives.
Where a person is already an appointed representative (in relation to any non-mortgage activities) and he proposes to carry on any regulated mortgage activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed mortgage activities include either entering into a regulated mortgage contract or administering a regulated mortgage contract. These activities may not be carried on by appointed representatives and the Act does not permit any
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation. An appointed representative is a person who is party to a contract with an authorised person which permits or requires him to carry on certain regulated activities (see Glossary for full definition). SUP 12 (Appointed representatives) contains rules and guidance relating to appointed representatives.
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
Section 213(3)(b) of the Act requires the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons in order to meet its expenses. These expenses include in particular expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, in paying compensation, borrowing or insuring risks.
Section 224F of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons (or any class of authorised persons) in order to meet its management expenses incurred if, under Part 15A of the Act, it is required by HM Treasury to act in relation to relevant schemes. But those rules must provide that the FSCS can impose a levy only if the FSCS has tried its best to obtain reimbursement of those expenses from the manager of the
The9 provisions on the allocation of levies to classes9 up to their levy limits2 meet9 a requirement of section 213(5) of the Act that the appropriate regulator , in making rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies, must take account of the desirability of ensuring that the amount of the levies imposed on a particular class of authorised person reflects, so far as practicable, the amount of claims made, or likely to be made, in respect of that class of person.22229999
Under section 23 of the Act (Contravention of the general prohibition), a person commits a criminal offence if he carries on activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) .. Although a person who commits the criminal offence is subject to a maximum of two years imprisonment and an unlimited fine, it is a defence for a person to show that he took all reasonable precautions and exercised all due diligence to avoid committing the
Another consequence of a breach of the general prohibition is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act). This applies to agreements entered into by persons who are in breach of the general prohibition. It also applies to any agreement entered into by an authorised person if the agreement is made as a result of the activities of a person who is in breach of the general prohibition.
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the appropriate regulator.7Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that
(1) APER 1.1A.2 P refers to the authorised person in relation to which a person is an approved person. (2) Under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements) there are two kinds of approved person. (3) Section 59(1) of the Act describes the first. It covers a person who performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by an authorised person ("A"). In this case, APER 1.1A.2 P refers to A.(4) Section 59(2) of the Act describes the second. It covers
(1) For the purposes of DEPP 6A,
"suspension" refers to the suspension of:2(a) any permission which
an authorised person has to carry
on a regulated activity (under
section 206A of the Act),2(b) any approval of the performance
by an approved person of any
function to which the approval relates (under section 66 of the Act),2(c) a sponsor's approval
(under section 88A(2)(b) of the Act),2(d) and a primary
information provider's approval (under section 89Q(2)(b) of
the Act); and2(2)
The powers to impose a suspension or a restriction in relation
to authorised persons and approved persons are disciplinary measures;2 where the FCA2 considers it necessary to take action, for example, to protect consumers from an authorised
person, the FCA2 will seek to cancel or vary the authorised
person'spermissions.
If the FCA2 has
concerns with a person's fitness
to be approved, and considers it necessary to take action, the FCA2 will
seek to prohibit the approved person
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
If a person is proposing a change in control over more than one firm within a group, then the controller or proposed controller may submit a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 in respect of all those firms which are PRA-authorised persons and a single section 178 notice to the FCA in respect of all those firms which are not PRA-authorised persons.7 The section 178 notice5should contain all the required information as if separate notifications had been made, but information
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 containing
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
Achieving the regulatory objectives involves the FCA informing itself of developments in firms and in markets. The Act requires the FCA to monitor a firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act, or by any directly applicable Community regulation or decision made under MiFID or the UCITS Directive or the auction regulation4 (paragraph 6 (1) of Schedule 1). The Act also requires the FCA to take certain steps to cooperate with other relevant bodies and 3regulators
4The FCA must consult the PRA before publishing or deciding not to publish a waiver which relates to:(1) a PRA-authorised person; or(2) an authorised person who has as a member of its immediate group a PRA-authorised person;unless the waiver relates to rules made by the FCA under sections 247 or 248 of the Act.