Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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FEES 4.2.8RRP
In relation to an incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm the modification provisions of FEES 4.2.7 R apply only in relation to the relevant regulated activities of the firm, which are passported activities or Treaty activities and which are carried on in the United Kingdom, and which are not provided on a cross border services basis.4 For payment services and electronic money issuance, 12the adjustment only applies to the business to which the calculation made in FEES 4.3.12A
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA65

65

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R65

(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12

(2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7

(3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators).

7764

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities916

9

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

64

£1,000

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event

64

Certificate issued to person by FCA64 under Article 54 RAO

64

Any manager of an authorised unit trust;

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE ; and

FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP13

65

(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1and (in the case of an RAP) part 1A13

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

64

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.131166

1166116611661166

ROIE65

65

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July.

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

64

Recognition order is made.

The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166

1166116611661166

Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3

The first condition is that the listedissuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listedissuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listedissuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3

FEES 4 Annex 7

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

Sponsors

£20,0001210 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2

1012

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

(1)14Approval of sponsor, unless (2) applies.14

(2) In the case of approval of a sponsor following a change of legal status in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 7, the balance of the fee otherwise due from the original sponsor.

Where a payment is made in accordance with (2) the original sponsor's obligation to pay that fee ceases.14

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.6

6

FEES 4 Annex 8

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules6

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FCA64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

6410

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.

FEES 4 Annex 11R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

64

A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

PERG 5.11.8GRP
Chapter XVII of the Regulated Activities Order (Exclusions applying to several specified kinds of activity) contains various exclusions applying to several kinds of activity. Threeexclusions of relevance in relation to contracts of insurance are dealt with in this section and a fourth, overseas persons, in PERG 5.12 (Link between activities and the United Kingdom).
PERG 5.11.9GRP
Article 67 excludes from the activities of dealing as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance and advising on investments, any activity which:(1) is carried on in the course of carrying on any profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) may
DISP 1.11.8GRP
However, the Society operates a two-tier internal complaints handling procedure, currently set out in the "Code for Underwriting agents: UK Personal Lines Claims and Complaints Handling". Under this procedure, complaints by policyholders against members of the Society are considered by the managing agent and then, if necessary, by the Society's in-house Complaints Department. This procedure (and any procedure that may replace it) will be subject to the requirements in this ch
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
PERG 4.5.18GRP
In addition to the exclusion in article 33A, introducers may be able to take advantage of the exclusion in article 33 of the Regulated Activities Order (Introducing). This excludes arrangements where:(1) they are arrangements under which persons will be introduced to another person;(2) the person to whom the introduction is to be made is:(a) an authorised person; or(b) an exempt person acting in the course of business comprising a regulated activity in relation to which he is
PERG 4.5.19GRP
The Regulated Activities Order contains a number of other exclusions which have the effect of preventing certain activities from amounting to regulated activities within article 25. These are referred to in PERG 4.10 (Exclusions applying to more than one regulated activity). There is also an exclusion where both the arranger and borrower are overseas, which is referred to in PERG 4.11 (Link between activities and the United Kingdom).
GENPRU 1.2.49RRP
(1) In accordance with the general principles in GENPRU 1.2.48 R and BIPRU 8 (Group risk – consolidation), for the purpose of the ICAAP rules as they apply on a consolidated basis:(a) the firm must ensure that the relevant group as defined in (2) have the processes, strategies and systems required by the overall Pillar 2 rule;(b) the risks to which the overall Pillar 2 rule and the general stress and scenario testing rule refer are those risks as they apply to each member of the
GENPRU 1.2.89GRP
6A firm should satisfy itself that the systems (including IT) ofthe insurance group, the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group of which it is a member are sufficiently sound to support the effective management and, where applicable, the quantification of the risks that could affectthe insurance group, the UK consolidation group or the non-EEA sub-group, as the case may be.
BIPRU 2.2.19GRP
(1) Individual capital guidance may also be given with respect to group capital resources. This paragraph explains how such guidance should be interpreted unless the individual capital guidance specifies another interpretation.(2) If BIPRU 8.2.1 R (General consolidation rule for a UK consolidation group) applies to the firm the guidance relates to its UK consolidation group. If BIPRU 8.3.1 R (General consolidation rule for a non-EEA sub-group) applies to the firm the guidance
BIPRU 2.2.43RRP
If BIPRU 2.2.41 R applies to a firm on a consolidated basis the following adjustments are made to BIPRU 2.2.41 R in accordance with the general principles of BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation):(1) references to capital resources are to the consolidated capital resources of the firm'sUK consolidation group or, as the case may be, its non-EEA sub-group; and(2) references to the capital requirements in GENPRU 2.1 (Calculation of capital resources requirements) are to the consolidated
COLL 5.2.1RRP
13(1) 13This section applies to an ICVC, an ACD, a manager of an AUT, a depositary of an ICVC and a trustee of an AUT, where such ICVC or AUT is a UCITS scheme, in accordance with COLL 5.2.2 R (Table of application).(2) COLL 5.2.23C R (Valuation of OTC derivatives) also applies to a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.13
COLL 5.2.23CRRP
(1) 13For the purposes of COLL 5.2.23 R (2), an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must:(a) establish, implement and maintain arrangements and procedures which ensure appropriate, transparent and fair valuation of the exposures of a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme to OTC derivatives; and(b) ensure that the fair value of OTC derivatives is subject to adequate, accurate and independent assessment.(2) Where the
PERG 2.8.2GRP
Only one exclusion applies to the regulated activity of accepting deposits. Adeposit taker providing its services as an electronic commerce activity from another EEA State into the United Kingdom (see PERG 2.9.18 G) does not carry on a regulated activity. In addition to the situations that are excluded from being 'deposits' (see PERG 2.6.2 G to PERG 2.6.4 G), several persons are exempt persons in relation to the regulated activity of accepting deposits (see PERG 2.10.8G (2)).
BIPRU 12.5.18GRP
In the appropriate regulator's view, Type A wholesale funding is likely to include at least funding which:(1) is accepted from a credit institution, local authority, insurance undertaking, pension fund, money market fund, asset manager (including a hedge fund manager), government-sponsored agency, sovereign government, or sophisticated non-financial corporation; or(2) is accepted through the treasury function of a sophisticated non-financial corporation which may be assumed to
BIPRU 12.5.38RRP
In relation to an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm which does not have a whole-firm liquidity modification, that firm must assess the risk that its UKbranch may be exposed to calls on liquidity under its control from its head office:(1) in normal financial conditions; and(2) under the liquidity stresses required by BIPRU 12.5.6 R.
SUP 1A.3.1GRP
The FCA will adopt a pre-emptive approach which will be based on making forward-looking judgments about firms' business models, product strategy and how they run their businesses, to enable the FCA to identify and intervene earlier to prevent problems crystallising. The FCA's approach to supervising firms will contribute to its delivery against its objective to protect and enhance the integrity of the UK financial system (as set out in the Act). Where the FCA has responsibilities
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by a competent authority no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made; and

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
DISP 1.2.5AGRP
7DISP 1.2.5 G does not apply to a branch of a UK UCITS management company in another EEA State.
PRIN 3.4.5RRP
Where Principle 11 refers to regulators, this means, in addition to the appropriate regulator, other regulators with recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated activities, whether in the United Kingdom or abroad.
COLL 7.1.1RRP
(1) 2This chapter applies to an ICVC, an ACD, any other director of an ICVC, a depositary of an ICVC, a manager of an AUT and a trustee of an AUT, where such AUT or ICVC is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme in accordance with COLL 7.1.2 R (Table of application).(2) COLL 7.7 (UCITS mergers) applies only to a domestic UCITS merger or a cross-border UCITS merger.2
COLL 3.2.2RRP
(1) The instrument constituting the scheme must not contain any provision that:(a) conflicts with any rule in this sourcebook;(b) prevents units in the scheme being marketed in the United Kingdom; or(c) is unfairly prejudicial to the interests of unitholders generally or to the unitholders of any class of units.(2) Any power conferred by the rules on the ICVC, the authorised fund manager, any other director of the ICVC, or the depositary, whether in a sole or joint capacity, is
SUP 12.8.6RRP
3If a UK MiFID investment firm has appointed an EEA tied agent this section applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.
LR 9.6.19RRP
A listed company which changes its name must, as soon as possible:(1) notify a RIS of the change, stating the date on which it has taken effect;(2) inform the FCA in writing of the change; and(3) where the listed company is incorporated in the United Kingdom, send the FCA a copy of the revised certificate of incorporation issued by the Registrar of Companies.
PR 5.3.1UKRP

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State

87H

(1)

A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the prospectus as approved; and

(c)

if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.

(2)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus -

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.

(3)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

3(3A)

The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section.

3(3B)

The list referred to in subsection (3A) must -

(a)

be kept up-to-date;

(b)

retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and

(c)

include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of -

(i)

the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate;

(ii)

the issuer; or

(iii)

the regulated market where admission to trading is sought.

(4)

"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State

87I

(1)

The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and

(c)

a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2

(1A)2

If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to -

(a)

the person who made the request under this section; and

(b)

ESMA.

(2)

Only the following may make a request under this section –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;

(b)

a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;

(c)

a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.

(3)

A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA].

(4)

A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(5)

The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section –

(a)

if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or

2

(b)

if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.

(6)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

(7)

“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.