Related provisions for BIPRU 11.5.21

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DTR 5.1.2RRP
Subject to the exemption for certain third country issuers (DTR 5.11.6 R), a person must notify the issuer of the percentage of its voting rights he holds as shareholder or holds or is deemed to hold 5through his direct or indirect holding of financial instruments falling within 2DTR 5.3.1R (1) , subject to the exemption in DTR 5.3.1R(2),58 and DTR 5.3.1R (2A), (or a combination of such holdings) if the percentage of those voting rights2:22(1) reaches, exceeds or falls below 3%,
SUP 12.9.3GRP
The firm should also satisfy itself that:(1) the appointed representative is making and retaining records in accordance with the relevant record keeping rules in the Handbook, if these records are not maintained by the firm;(2) the appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative) is making and retaining records sufficient to disclose with reasonable accuracy the financial position of the business it carries on in its capacity as the firm's appointed
MCOB 2.3.8GRP
(1) Quantification of any material inducement offered by the mortgage lender or reversion provider2 supports the disclosure requirements elsewhere in MCOB. Further guidance on the disclosure of any inducement in cash terms is provided in MCOB 5.6.118 G for regulated mortgage contracts other than lifetime mortgages, MCOB 9.4.124 G for lifetime mortgages and MCOB 9.4.173 G for home reversion plans.2(1A) Quantification of any material inducement offered by a SRB agreement provider
REC 3.15.2ARRP
1When a UK RIE suspends trading on a regulated market in any financial instrument, it must immediately give the FCA3notice of that event and relevant information including particulars of that financial instrument and the reasons for the action taken. [Note: Article 41(1), paragraph 2 of MiFID]3
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.

SUP 10A.14.19GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 213 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344
SUP 12.7.7RRP
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;42the appointed representative's principal must give written notice
REC 3.26.4RRP
1The duty in section 300B(1) of the Act does not apply to any of the following:(1) any regulatory provision which is required under EU2 law or any enactment or rule of law in the United Kingdom; or2(2) (a) the specification of the standard terms of any derivative which a UK RIE proposes to admission to trading, or the amendment of the standard terms of any derivative already admitted to trading; or(b) the specification or any amendment of standard terms relating to the provision
COLL 11.6.13RRP
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note: articles 20(3)
COLL 6.2.21RRP
(1) Subject to (1A) and (3) the5instrument constituting the scheme and the prospectus of an authorised fund which has at least one valuation point on each business day, may permit deferral of redemptions at a valuation point to the next valuation point where the requested redemptions exceed 10%, or some other reasonable proportion disclosed in the prospectus, of the authorised fund's value.5(1A) 5Subject to (3) the instrument constituting the scheme and the prospectus of a non-UCITS
SUP 3.3.1GRP
This section requires a firm to appoint an auditor and supply the appropriate regulator with information about its auditor. The appropriate regulator requires such information to ensure that the firm has an auditor.
DISP 3.5.9RRP
15The Ombudsman may:(1) exclude evidence that would otherwise be admissible in a court or include evidence that would not be admissible in a court;(2) accept information in confidence (so that only an edited version, summary or description is disclosed to the other party) where he considers it appropriate;(3) reach a decision on the basis of what has been supplied and take account of the failure by a party to provide information requested; and(4) dismiss a complaint if a complainant
COBS 9.4.5RRP
If, in respect of a life policy, the firm gives necessary information orally or gives immediate cover, it must provide a suitability report to the client in a durable medium immediately after the contract is concluded.[Note: article 13(2) of the Insurance Mediation Directive]
REC 6.2.4GRP
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an ROIE2. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FCA3 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act and should include:333(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FCA3 that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2) the application fee (see REC 7);(3) the address of the applicant's
BIPRU 3.4.78RRP
Market value means the estimated amount for which the property should exchange on the date of valuation between a willing buyer and a willing seller in an arm's length transaction after proper marketing wherein the parties had each acted knowledgeably, prudently and without compulsion. The market value must be documented in a transparent and clear manner.[Note: BCD Annex VIII Part 3 point 63]