Related provisions for SUP 15.7.2
1 - 20 of 213 items.
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future:35(1) the firm failing to satisfy one or more of the threshold conditions; or(2) any matter which could have a significant adverse impact on the firm's reputation; or(3) any matter which could affect the firm's ability to continue to provide adequate services to
The circumstances which may give rise to any of the events in SUP 15.3.1 R are wide-ranging and the probability of any matter resulting in such an outcome, and the severity of the outcome, may be difficult to determine. However, the appropriate regulator35 expects firms to consider properly all potential consequences of events.35
Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way and to disclose to the appropriate regulator35appropriately anything relating to the firm of which the appropriate regulator35 would reasonably expect notice. Principle 11 applies to unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and takes into account the activities of other members of a group3535
10Although PRIN does not apply to a firm in relation to its carrying on of auction regulation bidding, the FCA35expects to be given notice of events that are material to the FCA's35supervision of that business and so firms carrying on that business should have regard to the guidance in SUP 15.3.8 G to SUP 15.3.10 G.3535
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the appropriate regulator35 notice of:35(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory;
A notification under Principle 11 may be given orally or in writing (as set out in SUP 15.7.1 R and SUP 15.7.2 G), although the appropriate regulator35 may request written confirmation of a matter. However, it is the responsibility of a firm to ensure that matters are properly and clearly communicated to the appropriate regulator.35 A firm should provide a written notification if a matter either is complex or may be such as to make it necessary for the appropriate regulator35
(1) A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 of:35(a) a significant breach of a rule (which includes a Principle, or a Statement of Principle ; or(b) a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or an order made under the Act by the Treasury (except if the breach is an offence, in which case (c) applies);6(c) the bringing of a prosecution for, or a conviction of, any offence under the Act;(d) a breach of a directly applicable provision in the MiFID Regulation;
A firm must notify the appropriate regulator35 immediately if:(1) civil proceedings are brought against the firm and the amount of the claim is significant in relation to the firm's financial resources or its reputation; or(2) any action is brought against the firm under section 71 of the Act (Actions for damages) or section 150 (Actions for damages); or(3) disciplinary measures or sanctions have been imposed on the firm by any statutory or regulatory authority, professional organisation
The notifications under SUP 15.3.17 R are required as the appropriate regulator35 needs to be aware of the types of fraudulent and irregular activity which are being attempted or undertaken, and to act, if necessary, to prevent effects on consumers or other firms. A notification under SUP 15.7.3 G should provide all relevant and significant details of the incident or suspected incident of which the firm is aware.35
3The Society must immediately inform the appropriate regulator35 in writing if it becomes aware that any matter likely to be of material concern to the appropriate regulator35 may have arisen in relation to:(1) the regulated activities for which the Society has permission; or (2) underwriting agents; or (3) approved persons or individuals acting for or on behalf of underwriting agents.
3The Society must inform the appropriate regulator35 if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings relating to apparent breaches:35(1) of the Act or requirements made under the Act, including the threshold conditions or the Principles or other rules, by an underwriting agent; or(2) of the Statements of Principle by an individual or other person who carries out controlled functions for or on behalf of an underwriting agent.
3The Society must inform the appropriate regulator35 if it commences investigations or disciplinary proceedings which do not fall within the scope of SUP 15.3.24 D but which:35(1) involve an underwriting agent, or an approved person who carries out controlled functions for it or on its behalf; or (2) may indicate that an individual acting for or on behalf of an underwriting agent may not be a fit and proper person to perform functions in relation to regulated activities.
12A firm must notify the appropriate regulator in writing of its intention to issue a capital instrument which it intends to include within its capital resources at least one month before the intended date of issue, unless there are exceptional circumstances which make it impracticable to give such a period of notice, in which event the firm must give as much notice as is practicable in those circumstances. When giving notice, a firm must:(1) provide details of the amount of
12A firm must provide a further notification to the appropriate regulator in writing including all the information required in GENPRU 2.2.61BR (1) to (4) as soon as it proposes any change to the intended date of issue, amount of issue, type of investors, stage of capital or any other feature of the capital instrument to that previously notified to the appropriate regulator.
12If a firm proposes to establish a debt securities program for the issue of capital instruments for inclusion within its capital resources, it must: (1) notify the appropriate regulator of the establishment of the program; and(2) provide the information required by GENPRU 2.2.61BR (1) to (4)at least one month before the first proposed drawdown. Any changes must be notified to the appropriate regulator in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.61C R.
12A firm must notify the appropriate regulator in writing, no later than the date of issue, of its intention to issue a capital instrument listed in GENPRU 2.2.61E R which it intends to include within its capital resources. When giving notice, a firm must: (1) provide the information set out at GENPRU 2.2.61BR (1) to (3); and(2) confirm that the terms of the capital instrument have not changed since the previous issue by the firm of that type of capital instrument.
12GENPRU 2.2.61B R provides that, in exceptional circumstances, a firm may provide less than one month's notice of the intended issue. The appropriate regulator is unlikely to consider circumstances to be exceptional unless they are such that there is a risk of a firm'scapital resources falling below its capital resources requirement if a one-month notification period is observed. In such circumstances, a firm should notify the appropriate regulator as soon as it has resolved
4The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.64R (4) is to ensure that a firm retains flexibility over the payment of coupons and can preserve cash in times of financial stress. However, a firm may include, as part of the capital instrument terms, a right to make payments of a coupon mandatory if an item of capital becomes ineligible to form part of its capital resources (e.g. through a change in the relevant rules) and the firm has notified the appropriate regulator that the instrument is in
A firm may not include a capital instrument in its tier one capital resources, unless its contractual terms are such that:(1) (if it is redeemable other than in circumstances set out in GENPRU 2.2.64R (3)(a) (redemption on a winding up)) it is redeemable only at the option of the firm or, in the case of a BIPRU firm, on the date of maturity;88(2) the firm cannot exercise that redemption right:(a) before the fifth anniversary of its date of issue;(b) unless it has given notice
A firm must not redeem any tier one instrument that it has included in its tier one capital resources unless it has notified the appropriate regulator of its intention at least one month before it becomes committed to do so. When giving notice, the firm must provide details of its position after such redemption in order to show how it will:77(1) meet its capital resources requirement;78(2) 7have sufficient financial resources to meet the overall financial adequacy rule; and8(3)
8The appropriate regulator considers that, in order to comply with GENPRU 2.2.74 R, the firm should, at a minimum, provide the appropriate regulator with the following information:(1) a comprehensive explanation of the rationale for the redemption;(2) the firm's financial and solvency position before and after the redemption, in particular whether that redemption, or other foreseeable internal and external events or circumstances, may increase the risk of the firm breaching
8A BIPRU firm must not purchase a tier one instrument that it has included in its tier one capital resources unless:(1) the firm initiates the purchase;(2) 10[deleted]10(3) the firm has given notice to the appropriate regulator in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.79G R; and10(4) 10(in the case of hybrid capital) it is on or after the fifth anniversary of the date of issue of the instrument.
8A BIPRU firm must not purchase a tier one instrument in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.79A R unless it has notified the appropriate regulator of its intention at least one month before it becomes committed to doing so. When giving notice, the firm must provide details of its position after the purchase in order to show how, over an appropriate timescale, adequately stressed, and without planned recourse to the capital markets, it will:(1) meet its capital resources requirement;
10A BIPRU firm must not announce to the holders of a tier one instrument its intention to purchase that instrument unless it has notified that intention to the appropriate regulator in accordance with GENPRU 2.2.79G R and it has not, during the period of one month from the date of giving notice, received an objection from the appropriate regulator.
10A BIPRU firm must not include in stage A of the capital resources table different classes of the same share type (for example "A ordinary shares" and "B ordinary shares") that meet the conditions in GENPRU 2.2.83 R and GENPRU 2.2.83A R but have differences in voting rights, unless it has notified the appropriate regulator of its intention at least one month before the shares are issued or (in the case of existing issued shares) the differences in voting rights take effect.
A firm which satisfies the conditions for the inclusion of capital set out in GENPRU 2.2.124 R, must, in addition, if that transaction is in any respect unusual, notify the appropriate regulator at least one Month in advance of the date on which the firm intends to include that capital in its capital resources.
A firm must not amend the terms of the capital or the documents referred to in GENPRU 2.2.159R (8) unless:(1) at least one Month before the amendment is due to take effect, the firm has given the appropriate regulator notice in writing of the proposed amendment and the appropriate regulator has not objected; and(2) that notice includes confirmation that the legal opinions referred to in GENPRU 2.2.159R (12) and, if applicable, GENPRU 2.2.163 R (General conditions for eligibility
In relation to a tier two instrument, a firm must notify the appropriate regulator:(1) in the case of an insurer, six Months; and(2) in the case of a BIPRU firm, one Month;before it becomes committed to7 the proposed repayment (unless that firm intends to repay an instrument on its final maturity date). When giving notice, the firm must provide details of its position after such repayment in order to show how it will:777(3) meet its capital resources requirement; and7(4) have
(1) The purpose of GENPRU 2.2.177R (2) is to ensure that a firm which issues an item of capital with a coupon retains flexibility over the payments of such coupon and can preserve cash in times of financial stress. However, a firm may include, as part of the capital instrument terms, a right to make payments of a coupon mandatory if an item of capital becomes ineligible to form part of its capital resources (for example, through a change in the relevant rules) and the firm has
7When the appropriate UK regulator17 receives a notice from a UK MiFID investment firm (see SUP 13.6.5BG (1)), it is required by regulation 11A(3) to inform the relevant Host State regulator of the proposed change as soon as reasonably practicable. The firm in question may make the change once the period of one month beginning with the day on which it gave notice has elapsed.17
The appropriate regulator7 is entitled to rely on any information it receives from a firm and to consider any notification received as being made by a person authorised by the firm to do so. A firm should therefore consider whether it needs to put procedures in place to ensure that only appropriate employees make notifications to the appropriate regulator7 on its behalf.77
Unless stated in the notification rule, or on the relevant form (if specified), a written notification required from a firm under any notification rule must be:2(1) given to or addressed for the attention of the firm's usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator;7 and7(2) delivered to the appropriate regulator7 by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5A R or SUP 15.7.5B R as applicable:77
7Methods of notification
Method of delivery |
|
1. |
Post to the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G |
2. |
Leaving the notification at the appropriate address in SUP 15.7.6A G and obtaining a time-stamped receipt |
3. |
Electronic mail to an address for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and obtaining an electronic confirmation of receipt |
4. |
Hand delivery to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA |
5. |
Fax to a fax number for the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA and receiving a successful transmission report for all pages of the notification |
6. |
Online submission via the FCA's website at [website TBC]. |
7The current published address of the FCA for postal submission or hand delivery of notifications is:
- (1)
The Financial Conduct Authority
25 The North Colonnade London
Canary Wharf
E14 5HS
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in London, or
- (2)
The Financial Conduct Authority
Quayside House 127
Fountainbridge
Edinburgh EH3 8DJ
if the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA is based in Edinburgh.7
If the firm or its group is subject to lead supervision arrangements by the appropriate regulator,7 the firm or group may give or address a notice under SUP 15.7.4 R(1) to the supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator,7 designated as lead supervisor, if the firm has chosen to make use of the lead supervisor as a central point of contact (see SUP 1.5).77
If a firm is a member of a group which includes more than one firm, any one undertaking in the group may notify the appropriate regulator7 on behalf of all firms in the group to which the notification applies. In this way, that undertaking may satisfy the obligation of all relevant firms in the group to notify the appropriate regulator.7 Nevertheless, the obligation to make the notification remains the responsibility of the individual firm itself. See also SUP 15.7.3 G.77
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the firm must give the notification so as to be received by the appropriate regulator7no later than the end of that period; and 7(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the appropriate regulator7 no later than the first business day after the end of that period. 7
The appropriate regulator7 has made arrangements with the Society of Lloyd's with respect to the monitoring of underwriting agents. Underwriting agents should check whether these arrangements provide for any notifications required under this chapter to be sent to the Society instead of to the appropriate regulator.7 [For further details see the appropriate regulator's7 website.]777
The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Service of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1420) contain provisions relating to the service of documents on the appropriate regulator.7 They do not apply to notifications required under notification rules because of the specific rules in this section.7
73A firm which manages the assets of an occupational pension scheme must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable if it receives any request or instruction from a trustee which it:20(1) knows; or(2) on substantial grounds:(a) suspects; or(b) has cause reasonably to suspect;is at material variance with the trustee's duties.1
(1) An insurer must notify the FCA20in respect of any firm (the "intermediary") as soon as reasonably practicable if:20(a) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer in accordance with an indemnity commission clawback arrangement remains outstanding for four months after the date when the insurer gave notice to the intermediary that the relevant premium had not been paid; or(b) any amount of commission due from the intermediary to the insurer as a result
(1) 467In accordance with article 3111of the Money Laundering Regulations, with effect from 15 December 200711, a firm is required to notify the FCA:20111120(a) before it begins or within 28 days of it beginning11; and(b) immediately11 after it ceases;11to operate a money service business or a trust or company service provider.1111(2) The notification referred to in (1) should be made in accordance with the requirements in SUP 15.7 (Form and method of notification)
467A firm which is already operating a money service business or a trust or company service provider11 as at 15 December 200711 is required by the Money Laundering Regulations to notify the FCA20 of that fact and should do so in the manner specified in SUP 15.8.4 G(2) before 15 January 200811.111120
(1) 9If a firm begins or ceases to hold itself out as acting as a CTF provider, it must notify the FCA20 as soon as reasonably practicable that it has done so.20(2) A firm that acts as a CTF provider must provide theFCA,20 as soon as reasonably practicable, with details of:20(a) any third party administrator that it engages;(b) details of whether it intends to offer HMRC allocated CTFs12; and12(c) whether it intends to provide its own stakeholder CTF account.
A sponsor must provide to the FCA on or after the first business day of January in each year but no later than the last business day of January in each year:77(1) written confirmation that it continues to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor as set out in LR 8.6.5 R; and5(1A) for each of the criteria in that rule, evidence8 of the basis upon which it considers that it meets that criterion8.588(2) [deleted]55(3) [deleted]55(4) [deleted]55
A sponsor must notify the FCA in writing as soon as possible if:(1) 8(a) 8the sponsor ceases to satisfy the criteria for approval as a sponsor set out in LR 8.6.5 R or becomes aware of any matter which, in its reasonable opinion, would be relevant to the FCA in considering whether the sponsor continues to comply with LR 8.6.6 R; or(b) 8the sponsor becomes aware of any fact or circumstance relating to the sponsor or any of its employees engaged in the provision of sponsor services
8Where a sponsor is of the opinion that notwithstanding the circumstances giving rise to a notification obligation under LR 8.7.8 R, it continues to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R, it must include in its notification to the FCA a statement to that effect and the basis for its opinion.
8Examples of when a sponsor should submit a cancellation request pursuant to LR 8.7.22 R include, but are not limited to:(1) situations where the sponsor ceases to satisfy the ongoing criteria for approval as a sponsor in accordance with LR 8.6.6 R and, following a notification made under LR 8.7.8 R, there are no ongoing discussions with the FCA which could lead to the conclusion that the sponsor remains eligible; or(2) where there is a change of control of the sponsor or any
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in:10(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:10(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.
A firm must give the appropriate regulator10 reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following telephone numbers, and give details of the new telephone number and the date of the change:1310(1) the number of the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom;(2) in the case of an overseas firm, the number of its head office.3
(1) 2A firm other than a credit union must submit any notice underSUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4Rand10SUP 15.5.5 R3 by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R online at the appropriate regulator's website.101010(2) A credit union must submit any notice under SUP 15.5.1R, SUP 15.5.4R, SUP 15.5.5 R3 and SUP 15.5.7R by submitting the form in SUP 15 Ann 3R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit a notice online
If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FCA15 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or15(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances
5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3A G, SUP 13.7.3B G, SUP 13.7.5 G (1)and SUP 13.7.6 G,15UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).151551515
(1) A firm must notify the FCA as soon as practicable after it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that it will submit a qualified Form C in respect of an FCA-approved person.(2) Form C is qualified if the information it contains:(a) relates to the fact that the firm has dismissed, or suspended, the FCA-approved person from its employment; or(b) relates to the resignation by the FCA-approved person while under investigation by the firm, the FCA or any
If a firm becomes aware of information which would reasonably be material to the assessment of an FCA-approved person's, or a FCA candidate's, fitness and propriety (see FIT), it must inform the FCA on Form D, or (if it is more practical to do so and with the prior agreement of the FCA) by e-mail or fax, as soon as practicable.
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
If an owner proposes to transfer the asset pool to a new owner it must provide the FCA as a minimum with the following information in writing at least three months before the proposed transfer date:(1) name, address and contact details of the proposed new owner;(2) proposed transfer date and reasons for the transfer;(3) an explanation of how the proposed new owner will comply with the requirements imposed on it by the RCB Regulations and RCB; and(4) confirmation that the existing
If an issuer proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond, it must inform the FCA of the following information to the FCA at least 3 months before the proposed date of the change:(1) details of the proposed change including proposed date of change and the reasons for it;(2) an assessment of the impact of the change on the ability of the issuer and owner to continue to comply with their requirements under the RCB Regulations and RCB; and
The issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must notify the FCA immediately in writing by e-mail, or hand-delivered letter, if requirements relating to the relevant regulated covered bond under the RCB Regulations or RCB are, or are likely to be, materially breached, or of any other matter which the FCA should be made aware of.
1Under section 300B(2) of the Act, the FCA4may, by rules under section 293 (Notification requirements):4(1) 1specify descriptions of regulatory provision in relation to which, or circumstances in which, the duty in section 300B(1) does not apply, or(2) 1provide that the duty applies only to specified descriptions of regulatory provision or in specified circumstances.
1Under section 300B(3) of the Act, the FCA4may also by rules under section 293: 4(1) 1make provision as to the form and contents of the notice required, and(2) 1require the UK recognised body to provide such information relating to the proposal as may be specified in the rules or as the FCA4may reasonably require.4
1A notice under section 300B(1) of the Act of a proposal to make a regulatory provision must be in writing and state expressly that it is a notice for the purpose of that section. To be effective, a notice must: (1) 1contain full particulars of the proposal to make a regulatory provision which is the subject of that notice; and(2) 1either be accompanied by sufficient supporting information to enable the FCA4to assess the purpose and effect of the proposed regulatory provision
1Where possible, the director or senior manager who signs the annual confirmation should be the same director or senior manager who has verified the application for registration under RCB 2.2.6 D. If the director or senior manager is different to the director or senior manager who verified the application for registration, the issuer should notify the FCA at least one month before sending the confirmation to the FCA.
(1) The owner must ensure that a duly authorised representative signs the confirmation and confirms on the FCA's form that the owner has obtained the appropriate third party advice or reports required by this section.(2) The owner must obtain appropriate advice in the same manner as set out in RCB 3.2.2 D and must provide a copy of the asset pool monitor's report to the FCA as set out in RCB 3.2.4B D.1
1As required under Regulation 17A of the RCB Regulations, if it appears to the asset pool monitor that the issuer or owner (as the case may be) has failed to comply with the requirements set out in Regulations 17 or 24 of the RCB Regulations, or has not provided all relevant information or explanations, the asset pool monitor must report that to the FCA in writing as soon as possible.
A benchmark administrator must:(1) have effective arrangements and procedures that allow the regular monitoring and surveillance of benchmark submissions:(2) monitor the benchmark submissions in order to identify breaches of its practice standards (set out in MAR 8.3.10R (1)) and conduct that may involve manipulation, or attempted manipulation, of the specified benchmark it administers and provide to the oversight committee of the specified benchmark timely updates of suspected
The oversight committee should be responsible for:(1) considering matters of definition and scope of the specified benchmark;(2) exercising collective scrutiny of benchmark submissions if and when required; and(3) notifying the FCA of benchmark submitters that fail on a recurring basis to follow the practice standards (as set out in MAR 8.3.10R (1)) for the specified benchmark.
The benchmark administrator through its oversight committee must:(1) develop practice standards in a published code which set out the responsibilities for benchmark submitters, the benchmark administrator, and its oversight committee in relation to the relevant specified benchmark;(2) undertake regular periodic reviews of:(a) the practice standards mentioned in MAR 8.3.10R (1);(b) the setting and definition of the specified benchmark it administers;(c) the composition of benchmark
MAR 8.3.13 R sets out the minimum amount of financial resources a benchmark administrator must hold in order to carry out administering a specified benchmark. However, the FCA expects benchmark administrators to normally hold sufficient financial resources to cover the operating costs of administering the specified benchmark for a period of nine months.
(1) A listed company must notify a RIS as soon as possible when a document has been forwarded to the FCA under LR 9.6.1 R or LR 9.6.2 R unless the full text of the document is provided to the RIS.(2) A notification made under paragraph (1) must set out where copies of the relevant document can be obtained.
A listed company which changes its name must, as soon as possible:(1) notify a RIS of the change, stating the date on which it has taken effect;(2) inform the FCA in writing of the change; and(3) where the listed company is incorporated in the United Kingdom, send the FCA a copy of the revised certificate of incorporation issued by the Registrar of Companies.
1Where a person intends to rely on article 4(2), 10(2) or 89(2) of EMIR for an exemption from the clearing obligation set out in article 4(1) or 10(1) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in such manner, and by providing such information, as the FCA directs or requires.
At any time after receiving an application or notification for exemption from, or a notification in respect of, EMIR requirements, the FCA may require the person concerned to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or consider the notification.
If either the firm or the appointed representative notifies the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained or referred to in SUP 12.5 (Contracts: required terms), the firm must:2(1) complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 5 R (Appointed representative termination form) in accordance with the instructions on the form and no more than ten business days after the date of the
(1) 4A firm other than a credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R, online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FCA's ONAsystem.(2) A credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit a notification online under (1), if the FCA's information technology
4If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.8.1AR(3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FCA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.
Where an ROIE1 proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FCA1 and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.1
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;12(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the appropriate UK regulator12 and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).112
Under section 294(4) of the Act, before the FCA1 may give a waiver of notification rules, it must be satisfied that:1(1) compliance by the recognised body with those notification rules, or with those rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which those rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests those rules are designed to protect.
Any waiver given by the FCA1 under section 294 of the Act will be made in writing, stating: 1(1) the name of the recognised body in respect of which the waiver is made;(2) the notification rules which are to be waived or modified in respect of that body;(3) where relevant, the manner in which any rule is to be modified;(4) any condition or time limit to which the waiver is subject; and(5) the date from which the waiver is to take effect.