Related provisions for REC 5.2.4
1 - 20 of 72 items.
(1) Where a firm is submitting an application for variation of Part 4A permission27 which would lead to a change in the controlled functions of its approved persons, it should, at the same time and as appropriate:27(a) make an application for an internal transfer of an approved person, Form E (Internal transfer), or make an application for an individual to perform additional controlled functions, the relevant11 Form A (Application); see2727SUP 10.13.3 D to SUP 10.13.5 G; (b)
A firm with Part 4A permission27 to carry on insurance business, which is applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission27 to add further insurance activities or specified investments, will be required to submit particular information on its existing activities as part of its application. This includes the scheme of operations which is required to be submitted as part of the application pack (for further details on the scheme of operations, see SUP App 2 (Insurers: scheme
The application for variation of Part 4A permission27 will need to provide information about the classes of contract of insurance for which variation of Part 4A permission27 is requested and also those classes qualifying to be carried on, on an ancillary or supplementary basis. For example, an insurer applying to vary its permission to include class 10 (motor vehicle liability, other than carrier's liability) must satisfy the FCA27 that it will meet, and continue to meet, threshold
(1) A firm other than a credit union wishing to make an application under SUP 6 must apply online using the form specified on the ONA system.1414272727(2) [deleted]271427(3) Until the application has been determined, a firm which submits an application must inform the relevant regulator27 of any significant change to the information given in the application immediately it becomes aware of the change.27(3A) Where an application requires the consent of the FCA, a firm which submits
(1) Section 55(U)(2)27 of the Act (Applications under this Part) requires that the application for variation of Part 4A permission27 must contain a statement:2727(a) of the desired variation; and(b) of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the firm proposes to carry on if its permission is varied.(1A) Section 55(U)(3) of the Act requires that an application for variation of a requirement imposed under section 55L or 55M or the imposition of a new requirement must
(1) [deleted]7(2) A firm is advised to discuss its application with the relevant regulator27 before submission, particularly if it is seeking a variation of Part 4A permission or imposition, variation or cancellation of a requirement27 within a short timescale. A firm is also advised to include as much detail as possible (including any additional information identified by its supervisors at this stage) with its application.72727
The relevant regulator,27 as soon as possible after receipt of an application, will advise the firm of any additional information which is required as part of its application (see SUP 6.3.23 G to SUP 6.3.27 G). The amount of information required27 will vary depending on the scale of the variation in the context of the firm as a whole, and the nature, risk profile and complexity of the variation.2727
In certain cases, the relevant regulator may consider that granting an application for imposition, variation or cancellation of any requirement or for variation of Part 4A permission27 which includes adding further regulated activities or changing a limitation would cause a significant change in the firm's business or risk profile. In these circumstances, the relevant regulator27 may require the firm to complete appropriate parts of the full application pack (see the relevant
A firm that wishes to make a significant change to its business, or is unsure whether the changes it is proposing would be considered to be significant, should contact the relevant regulator. The relevant regulator27 will discuss with the firm whether it will be required to submit parts of the application pack and whether any reports from third parties may be required.127
(1) The relevant regulator27 may ask for any information it reasonably requires before determining the application. The information required will be determined on a case by case basis, taking into account the relevant regulator's27 existing knowledge of the firm and the change27 requested. The relevant regulator27 will advise the firm of the information required at an early stage in the application process.272727(2) The nature of the information and documents requested will be
When determining whether to grant an application, the relevant regulator27 may request further information, including reports from third parties such as the firm's auditors, and may require meetings with, and visits to, the firm. The relevant regulator27 may also require a statement from members of the firm's governing body confirming, to the best of their knowledge, the completeness and accuracy of the information supplied. The relevant regulator27 may also discuss the application
(1) The relevant regulator27 is required by section 55B(3) of the Act to ensure that a firm applying to gain or vary a Part 4A permission or to impose or vary a requirement27 satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have a Part 4A permission.2727271527(2) [deleted]27151527
(1) 27The FCA's duty under section 55B(3) of the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any of its operational objectives. This may include granting or consenting to (as the case may be) a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission when it wishes to wind down (run off) its business activities and cease to carry on new business as a result of no longer being able
In considering whether to grant (or consent to, as the case may be)27 a firm's application to vary its Part 4A permission or impose or vary a requirement, the regulator concerned will also have regard, under section 55R(1)27 of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant), to any person6 appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relationship with the firm which is relevant. The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special consultation provisions where the regulator is exercising
If the relevant regulator27 receives an application which is incomplete (that is, if information or a document required as part of the application is not provided), section 55V(2)27 of the Act requires the relevant regulator27 to determine that incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.272727
A decision to grant an application will be taken by appropriately experienced staff at the relevant regulator.27 However, if the staff dealing with the application recommend that a firm's application for variation of Part 4A permission27 be either refused or granted subject to limitations or requirements or a narrower description of regulated activities than applied for, the decision will be subject to the regulator's formal decision making process.272727272727
An applicant for recognised
body status needs to demonstrate to the FCA5 that it is able to meet the recognised body requirements31before a recognition
order can be made. Once it has been recognised, a recognised body has to comply with the recognised
body requirements31at all times. (Guidance on
the recognised
body requirements3 applicable to UK
recognised bodies (and applicants) is given in REC 2 and REC 2A).35333
(1) There
is no standard application form. A prospective applicant should contact the
Markets Division at the FCA5 at an early stage for advice on the preparation, scheduling and
practical aspects of its application.5(2) It
is very important, if an application is to be processed smoothly and in a
reasonable time, that it is comprehensively prepared and based on a well-developed
and clear proposal.
An application should:(1) be
made in accordance with any directions the FCA5 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act or (for RAPs)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations;353355(2) in
the case of an application under section5 287 of the Act, 3be accompanied by the applicant's regulatory
provisions and
in the case of an application under section 287 of the Act information
required pursuant to sub-sections 287(3)(c), (d) and (e) of the Act (see
Under section 289 of the Act (Applications: supplementary) or (for an RAP applicant)
regulation 2 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA5 may
require the applicant to provide additional information, and may require the
applicant to verify any information in any manner. In view of their likely
importance for any application, the FCA5 will normally wish to arrange for its own inspection of an applicant's
information technology systems.55
1In
the case of an application to become a UK
RIE or an RAP3, under subsection 290(1B) of the Act and
(for an RAP applicant) regulation
2(8) of the RAP regulations3, the application must be determined by the FCA5 before the end of the period of six months beginning
with the date on which it receives the completed application.5
(1) The FCA5 will
keep the applicant informed of the progress of the application.5(2) It
may be necessary to ask the applicant to clarify or amplify some aspects of
its proposals. The FCA5 may wish to discuss various aspects of the application and may
invite the applicant to attend one or more meetings for that purpose. When
requested to do so, the FCA5 will explain the nature of the information which it has asked
an applicant to supply in connection with its application.55
Where the FCA5 considers that it is unlikely to make a recognition
order it will discuss its concerns with
the applicant as early as possible with a view to enabling the applicant to
make changes to its rules or guidance, or other parts of the application (see REC 5.2.7 G).
If the FCA5 decides
that it will not make a recognition order,
it will follow the procedure set out in section 298 of the Act (Directions
and revocation: procedure) or
(in the case of an RAP) regulation
5 of
Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).
(1) |
Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3 |
(2) |
Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(3) |
Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing facilitation services5 and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products4 which it operates or plans to operate.3 54 |
(4) |
Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts. |
(5) |
Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(6) |
A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. |
(7) |
Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant. |
(8) |
Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements. |
(9) |
Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security. |
(10) |
Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems. |
(11) |
Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks. |
(12) |
Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks. 5 |
(13) |
Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest. |
(14) |
Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FCA5. 5 |
(15) |
Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements. |
(16) |
A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules) and the results and conclusions reached. 5 |
(17) |
Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules. |
(18) |
Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3 |
(19) |
Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities. |
(20) |
Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law. |
(21) |
Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities. 5 |
(22) |
Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FCA5 and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters. 5 |
(23) |
Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes. |
(24) |
Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints. |
(1) In accordance with section 60 of the Act (Applications for approval), applications must be submitted by, or on behalf of, the firm itself, not by:(a) the FCAcandidate; or(b) (where the FCAcandidate works for the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company) by the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company.(2) Usually this will be the firm that is employing the FCAcandidate to perform the FCA controlled function. Where a firm has outsourced the performance of an FCA controlled
In any case where the application for approval is made by a person applying for permission under Part 4A of the Act, the FCA has until the end of whichever of the following periods ends last: (1) the period within which an application for that permission must be determined; and(2) the period of three months from the time it receives a properly completed application.
The FCA must either grant the application or, if it proposes not to grant an application, issue a warning notice (see DEPP 2). The FCA will deal with cases more quickly than this whenever circumstances allow and will try to meet the standard response times published on the website and in its Annual Report. However, if an application is incomplete when received, or the FCA has knowledge that, or reason to believe that, the information is incomplete, then the processing time will
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the FCAcandidate's suitability to be approved to undertake an FCA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the FCA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under
Before making a decision to grant the application or give a warning notice, the FCA may ask the firm for more information about the FCA candidate. If it does this, the three-month period in which the FCA must determine a completed application:(1) will stop on the day the FCA requests the information; and(2) will start running again on the day on which the FCA finally receives all the requested information.
The FCA may grant an application only if it is satisfied that the FCA candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the FCA controlled function stated in the application form. Responsibility lies with the firm making the application to satisfy the FCA that the FCA candidate is fit and proper to perform the FCA controlled function applied for.
The appropriate regulator10 will acknowledge an application promptly and if necessary will seek further information from the firm. The time taken to determine an application will depend on the issues it raises. However, the appropriate regulator10 will aim to give waiver decisions within 20 business days of receiving an application which includes sufficient information. If the appropriate regulator10 expects to take longer, it will tell the firm and give an estimated decision
The appropriate regulator10 will treat a firm's application for a waiver as withdrawn if it does not hear from the firm within 20 business days of sending a communication which requests or requires a response from the firm. The appropriate regulator10 will not do this if the firm has made it clear to the appropriate regulator10 in some other way that it intends to pursue the application. 3101010
For an application for a waiver of the presumption of contravention of a binding rule, which is actionable under section 138D10 of the Act, the appropriate regulator10 would normally wish to be satisfied that the evidential rule is itself unduly burdensome or does not achieve the purpose of the rule.21010
In the case of an application for a waiver of a two-way evidential provision relating to an actionable binding rule, the policy in SUP 8.3.12 G would apply to the presumption of compliance and the policy in SUP 8.3.13 G would apply to the presumption of contravention. In other words, any modification is likely to be in relation to the second presumption only.2
The appropriate regulator anticipates that an application to modify the overall liquidity adequacy rule may be accompanied by an application to waive or modify other rules in BIPRU 12 (for example, the stress testing and contingency funding planrules in BIPRU 12.4). The appropriate regulator offers some guidance in this section on applications of this type.
BIPRU 12.8.14 G to BIPRU 12.8.20 G set out the appropriate regulator's likely approach in considering an application for an intra-group liquidity modification in which a firm seeks to rely on support from a parent undertaking which is constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom.
The appropriate regulator may also consider an application for an intra-group liquidity modification where a firm wishes to rely on liquidity resources from an entity in its group other than an overseasparent undertaking. The appropriate regulator recognises that a firm incorporated in the United Kingdom and to which BIPRU 12 applies may wish to rely on liquidity support from another such firm. In practice, the appropriate regulator anticipates that a firm applying for an intra-group
The appropriate regulator also recognises that a firm incorporated in the United Kingdom and to which BIPRU 12 applies may wish to rely on liquidity support from a subsidiary undertaking of that firm which is incorporated in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom. The appropriate regulator is, however, likely to consider that an application for an intra-group liquidity modification that contemplates reliance for liquidity support on only, or mostly, an applicant firm's
In each application for an intra-group liquidity modification, the appropriate regulator will consider the extent to which it is appropriate to modify the overall liquidity adequacy rule to allow reliance by an applicant firm on liquidity resources elsewhere in a firm'sgroup. However, it is unlikely that the appropriate regulator would consider the conditions in section 138A of the Act to be met in circumstances in which the overall liquidity adequacy rule was modified to allow
It will not always be the case that an applicant firm wishes to rely on a parent undertaking, or other group entity, that is itself subject to a regime of liquidity regulation, whether or not equivalent to the appropriate regulator's. In assessing a firm's application for an intra-group liquidity modification, the appropriate regulator will always have regard to the regulatory framework to which the entity on which it is proposed to rely for liquidity support is subject. Other
In determining the appropriate duration of a whole-firm liquidity modification, the appropriate regulator will have regard to the role and importance of the UKbranch in question in the UK1financial system. In some cases, the appropriate regulator may take the view that a whole-firm liquidity modification, covering a UKbranch whose role and importance in the UK1financial system are significant, ought to be reviewed more regularly than one granted in respect of a less systemically
In respect of the application for waivers to apply the approaches set out in BIPRU 1.3.2 G (1), the appropriate regulator will aim to give decisions on applications as soon as practicable. However, the appropriate regulator expects that it will take a significant period to determine and give a decision due to the complexity of the issues raised by the applications. Details of timelines for applications for waivers to use advanced approaches and under the Article 129 procedure
There is no application form, but applicants should make their application formally and in writing and in accordance with any direction the FCA1 may make under section 294(2) of the Act. Each application should set out at least:1(1) full particulars of the waiver which is requested; (2) the reason why the recognised body believes that the criteria set out in section 294(4) (and described in REC 3.3.3 G) would be met, if this waiver were granted; and (3) where the recognised body
Where the FCA1 considers that it will not give the waiver which has been applied for, the FCA1 will give reasons to the applicant for its decision. The FCA1 will endeavour, where practicable, to inform an applicant in advance where it seems that an application is likely to fail unless it is amended or expanded, so that the applicant will have the opportunity to make any necessary amendments or additions before the application is considered.111
(1) An application should be made by the proprietor of the relevant publication or service using the appropriate form, accessible from our website (see Forms/ Perimeter Guidance manual forms). The form asks for general information about the applicant and gives guidance notes on completion and other details of how the FCA can help.(2) An applicant will be asked to state his own view of the principal purpose of the publication or service. This should include an explanation why the
The Act does not specify a time limit for processing the application but the FCA intends to deal with an application as quickly as possible. The more complete and relevant the information provided by an applicant, the more quickly a decision can be expected. But on occasion it may be necessary to allow time in which the FCA can monitor the content of the service. This might happen where, for example, a service is in a form that makes record keeping difficult (such as a large website
If the FCA decides to grant the application it will issue a certificate. The certificate will normally be granted for an indefinite period. It will state what it is that the FCA considers constitutes the periodical or service in relation to which the FCA is satisfied that the exclusion in article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. In many cases this will be self-evident. But it may sometimes be necessary to include further details in the certificate indicating what
1Where a person intends to rely on article 4(2), 10(2) or 89(2) of EMIR for an exemption from the clearing obligation set out in article 4(1) or 10(1) of EMIR, the person should make their application or notification to the FCA in such manner, and by providing such information, as the FCA directs or requires.
At any time after receiving an application or notification for exemption from, or a notification in respect of, EMIR requirements, the FCA may require the person concerned to provide it with such further information as it reasonably considers necessary to enable it to determine the application or consider the notification.
17The fees for collective investment schemes reflect the estimated costs to the FCA of assessing applications and notifications. The level of fees payable in respect of an application or a notification will vary depending upon the provision of the Act under which it is made. This fee is adjusted when the scheme concerned is an umbrella.
Applications for Part 4A permission (and exercises of Treaty rights) are categorised by the appropriate regulator for the purpose of fee raising as complex, moderately complex and straightforward as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1. This differentiation is based on the permitted activities sought and does not reflect the appropriate regulator's risk assessment of the applicant (or Treaty firm).
6FCA staff under executive procedures will take the decision where the FCA is proposing or deciding to:(1) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application for a Part 4A permission, or give its consent subject to conditions; (2) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application for the variation of a Part 4A permission, or give its consent subject to conditions; or(3) refuse its consent to the granting by the PRA of an application to perform a controlled
6If the FCA is proposing or deciding to refuse a sponsor's application for the withdrawal or variation of a limitation or other restriction on the services to which a sponsor's approval relates under section 88(8)(d) of the Act, the decision maker will be FCA staff under executive procedures where FCA staff decided to impose the limitation or other restriction. Otherwise, the RDC will take the decision to give the warning notice and decision notice.
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
The appropriate authority2 has discretion under section 89 of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 to modify some of the requirements for a transfer of engagements from a friendly society, on the application of a specified number of its members, if it is satisfied that it is expedient to do so in the interests of its members or potential members.2
Under the Friendly Societies Act 1992:(1) when the members of a transferor society have approved the transfer of its engagements by passing a special resolution and the transferee has approved the transfer (by passing a resolution where the transferee is a friendly society); or(2) when two or more societies have approved a proposed amalgamation by passing a special resolution;it, or they jointly, must then obtain confirmation by the appropriate authority2 of the transfer. Notice
For a directive friendly society, if the transfer or amalgamation includes policies where the state of the risk or the state of the commitment is an EEA State other than the United Kingdom, consultation with the Host State regulator is required and SUP 18.2.25 G to SUP 18.2.29 G apply (for an amalgamation they apply as if the business of the amalgamating societies is to be transferred to the successor society). Paragraph 6(1) of Schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 requires
The appropriate authority2 may (as an alternative to refusing confirmation) direct the society or societies to remedy certain procedural defects in a proposed transfer or amalgamation, and after they have been remedied confirm the application. If it appears to the appropriate authority2 that failure to meet a "relevant requirement" of the Friendly Societies Act 1992 or the rules of the friendly society could not be material to the members' decision, then it may direct that this
Applicants for authorised person status should refer to the FCA3 website "How do I get authorised":http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation 31. Applications for recognition as an overseas recognised body should be addressed to:The Financial Conduct Authority3 (Markets Division)25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLondon E14 5HS133
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an ROIE2. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FCA3 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act and should include:333(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FCA3 that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2) the application fee (see REC 7);(3) the address of the applicant's
The FCA3 may require further information from the applicant and may need to have discussions with the appropriate authorities in the applicant's home territory. To allow sufficient time for applications to be processed and for the necessary contacts to be made with the appropriate home territory authorities, applications should be made not later than six months before the applicant wishes the recognition order to take effect. No guarantee can be given that a decision will be reached
Under section 107(2) of the Act, the application to the court may be made by the transferor or the transferee or both. As soon as reasonably practical, the intended applicant should choose their nominee for independent expert in the light of any criteria advised by the appropriate regulator. The intended applicant(s) should then advise the appropriate regulator of their choice, unless the appropriate regulator8 wishes them to defer nomination or to make its own nomination. The
Under section 109 of the Act, a scheme report must accompany an application to the court to approve an insurance business transfer scheme. This report must be made in a form approved by the appropriate regulator. The appropriate regulator would generally expect a scheme report to contain at least the information specified in SUP 18.2.33 G before giving its approval.88
The regulators are8 entitled to be heard by the court on any application for a transfer. A consideration for the regulators8 in determining whether to oppose a transfer would be their8 view on whether adequate steps had been taken to tell policyholders and, as appropriate, other affected persons,8about the transfer and whether they had adequate information and time to consider it. The regulators8 would not normally consider adequate a period of less than six weeks between sending
Once the appropriate regulator1 has given a waiver, it may vary it with the firm's consent, or on the firm's application. If a firm wishes the appropriate regulator1 to vary a waiver, it should follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.3 D, giving reasons for the application. In a case where a waiver has been given to a number of firms (see SUP 8.3.10 G), if the appropriate regulator1wishes to vary such waivers with the consent of those firms, it will follow the procedures in SUP 8.3.10
1Assets which would be eligible for inclusion in a liquidity buffer under BIPRU 12.7 can be liquid assets for the purposes of limb (a) of the definition of liquid assets in Regulation 1(2) of the RCB Regulations. The FCA will also expect that liquid assets which consist of deposits should be held in the same currency or currencies as the regulated covered bonds issued by the issuer.
A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator8 to discuss its circumstances. Discussions will focus on8 the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel itsPart 4A permission and/or the need to impose a new requirement, vary any existing requirement or cancel such a requirement. Following these discussions the firm should usually make the relevant application, as appropria