Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1

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SUP 11.3.1GRP
The notification requirements are set out in sections 178, 179, 191D and 191E of the Act and holdings which may be disregarded are set out in section 184 of the Act.10A summary of the notification requirements described in this section is given in SUP 11 Annex 1.4
SUP 11.3.1AGRP
12For the purposes of Part XII (Control over authorised persons) of the Act, and in particular, calculations relating to the holding of shares and/or voting power, the definitions of “shares” and “voting power” are set out in section 191G of the Act.
SUP 11.3.1BGRP
12SUP 11 Annex 6G provides guidance on when one person's holding of shares or voting power must be aggregated with that of another person for the purpose of determining whether an acquisition or increase of control will take place as contemplated by section 181 or 182 of the Act such that notice must be given to the in accordance with section 178 of the Act before making the acquisition or increase. This will be:(1) where those persons are acting in concert, as contemplated by
SUP 11.3.2GRP
Sections 178(1) and 191D(1)10 of the Act require a person (whether or not he is an authorised person) to notify the FSA in writing if he decides 10to acquire, increase or reduce10control or to cease to have control10 over a UK domestic firm . Failure to notify is an offence under section 191F10 of the Act (Offences under this Part).461010101010
SUP 11.3.2AGRP
The Treasury have made the following exemptions from the obligations under section 178 of the Act10:(1) controllers and potential controllers of non-directive friendly societiesare exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control (The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Controllers) (Exemption) Order 2009 (SI 2009/77410));10(2) controllers and potential controllers of building societies are exempt from the obligation to notify a change in control unless the change
SUP 11.3.4GRP
If a person decides10 to acquire control or increase control over a UK domestic firm in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 Ror acquire control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2AR (1)4, he must obtain the FSA's approval before doing so. Making an acquisition before the FSA has approved of it10is an offence under section 191F of the Act (Offences under this Part).1010104610
SUP 11.3.5AGRP
6The FSA recognises that firms acting as investment managers may have difficulties in complying with the prior notification requirements in sections 178 and 191D 10of the Act as a result of acquiring or disposing of listed shares in the course of that fund management activity. To ameliorate these difficulties, the FSA may accept pre-notification of proposed changes in control, made in accordance with SUP D, and may grant approval of such changes for a period lasting up to a
SUP 11.3.5BDRP
6The FSA may treat as notice given in accordance with sections 178 and 190(1)of the Act a written notification from a firm which contains the following statements:10(1) that the firm proposes to acquire and/or dispose of control, on one or more occasions, of any UK domestic firm whose shares or those of its ultimate parent undertaking are, at the time of the acquisition or disposal of control, listed or which are admitted to listing on a designated investment exchange;;10(2) that
SUP 11.3.7DRP
A section 178 notice10 given to the FSA by a person who is acquiring control or increasing his control over a UK domestic firm, in a way described in SUP 11.4.2 R (1) to (4), or acquiring control in a way described in SUP 11.4.2A R, must contain the information and be accompanied by such documents as are required by the controllers form approved by the FSA for the relevant application. 461010
SUP 11.3.10DRP
(1) A person who has submitted a section 178 notice10under SUP 11.3.7 D must notify the FSA immediately if he becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests, that he has or may have provided the FSA with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed, in a material particular. The notification must include:10(a) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate,
SUP 11.3.11GRP
The FSA will inform a section 178 notice giver as soon as reasonably practicable if it considers the section 178 notice to be incomplete.10651810
SUP 11.3.12GRP
86 The FSA has power, under section 179(3) 10of the Act (Requirements for section 178 notices10), to vary or waive these 10requirements in relation to a section 178 notice in particular cases 10if it considers it appropriate to do so.888101010108
SUP 11.3.14GRP
Pursuant to section 188 of the Act (Assessment: consultation with EU11 competent authorities), the 10FSA is obliged to consult any appropriate Home State regulator10before making a determination under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general)10.710111067910
SUP 11.3.17GRP
6Notifications to the FSA by proposed controllers and controllers under Part XII of the Act may be made on a joint basis outlined in SUP 11.5.8 G to SUP 11.5.10 G.10
DEPP 6.2.6GRP
In addition to the general factors outlined in DEPP 6.2.1 G, there are some additional considerations that may be relevant when deciding whether to take action against an approved person pursuant to section 66 of the Act. This list of those considerations is non-exhaustive. Not all considerations below may be relevant in every case, and there may be other considerations, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The approved person's position and responsibilities. The FSA may take into
DEPP 6.2.9AGRP
3In addition to the general factors outlined in DEPP 6.2.1 G, there are some additional considerations that the FSA will have regard to when deciding whether to take action against a person that performs a controlled function without approval contrary to section 63A of the Act.(1) The conduct of the person. The FSA will take into consideration whether, while performing controlled functions without approval, the person committed misconduct in respect of which, if he had been approved,
DEPP 6.2.10GRP
The primary responsibility for ensuring compliance with Part VI of the Act, the Part 6 rules, the prospectus rules or a provision otherwise made in accordance with the Prospectus Directive or a requirement imposed under such provision rests with the persons identified in section 91(1) and section 91(1A) (Penalties for breach of Part 6 rules) of the Act respectively. Normally therefore, any disciplinary action taken by the FSA for contraventions of these obligations will in the
DEPP 6.2.11GRP
However, in the case of a contravention by a person referred to in section 91(1)(a) or section 91(1)(b)(i) or section 91(1A) of the Act ("P"), where the FSA considers that another person who was at the material time a director of P was knowingly concerned in the contravention, the FSA may take disciplinary action against that person. In circumstances where the FSA does not consider it appropriate to seek a disciplinary sanction against P (notwithstanding a breach of relevant requirements
DEPP 6.2.14GRP
The Principles are set out in PRIN 2.1.1 R. The Principles are a general statement of the fundamental obligations of firms under the regulatory system. The Principles derive their authority from the FSA's rule-making powers set out in section 138(General rule-making power) of the Act. A breach of a Principle will make a firm liable to disciplinary action. Where the FSA considers this is appropriate, it will discipline a firm on the basis of the Principles alone.
DEPP 6.2.16GRP
The Listing Principles are set out in LR 7. The Listing Principles are a general statement of the fundamental obligations of listed companies. The Listing Principles derive their authority from the FSA's rule making powers set out in section 73A(1) (Part 6 Rules) of the Act. A breach of a Listing Principle will make a listed company liable to disciplinary action by the FSA.
DEPP 6.2.25GRP
In any case where the FSA considers that the use of its powers under any of sections 123, 129, 381, 383 or 384 of the Act may be appropriate, if that use may affect the timetable or outcome of a takeover bid or where it is appropriate in the context of any exercise by the Takeover Panel of its powers and authority, the FSA will consult the Takeover Panel before using any of those powers.
DEPP 2.5.3GRP
FSA staff under executive procedures will take the decision to give a warning notice if the FSA proposes to:(1) refuse an application for a Part IV permission or to refuse an application to cancel a Part IV permission;(2) impose a limitation or a requirement which was not applied for, or specify a narrower description of regulated activity than that applied for, on the grant of a Part IV permission;(3) refuse an application to vary a Part IV permission, or to restrict a Part IV
DEPP 2.5.8GRP
A fundamental change to the nature of a permission means:(1) removing a type of activity or investment from the firm'spermission; or(2) refusing an application to include a type of activity or investment; or(3) restricting a firm from taking on new business, dealing with a particular category of client or handling client money by imposing a limitation or requirement, or refusing an application to vary or cancel such a limitation or requirement; or(4) imposing or varying an assets
DEPP 2.5.9GRP
FSA staff under executive procedures will take the following statutory notice decisions:(1) the refusal of an application for listing of securities;(2) the suspension of listing on the FSA's own initiative or at the request of the issuer;(3) [deleted]22(4) the discontinuance of listing of securities at the issuer's request;(5) the exercise of any of the powers in sections 87K or 87L of the Act in respect of a breach of any applicable provision; and2(6) [deleted]22(7) the refusal
DEPP 2.5.11GRP
If securities have matured or otherwise ceased to exist the FSA will remove any reference to them from the official list. This is a purely administrative process, and not a discontinuance of listing in the sense used in Part 6 of the Act.
DEPP 2.5.13GRP
The decisions referred to in DEPP 2.5.12 G are:(1) the decision to give a supervisory notice pursuant to section 259(3), (8) or 9(b) (directions on authorised unit trust schemes); section 268(3), 7(a) or 9(a) (directions in respect of recognised overseas schemes); or section 282(3), (6) or (7)(b) (directions in respect of relevant recognised schemes) of the Act;(2) the decision to give a warning notice or decision notice pursuant to section 280(1) or (2)(a) (revocation of recognised
DEPP 2.5.16GRP
A notice under paragraph 15A(4) of Schedule 3 to5 the Act relating to the application by an EEA firm for approval to manage a UCITS scheme5 is not a warning notice, but the FSA will operate a procedure for this5 notice which will be similar to the procedure for a warning notice.5555
DEPP 2.5.17GRP
The FSA expects to adopt a procedure in respect of notices under enactments other than the Act which is similar to that for statutory notices under the Act, but which recognises any differences in the legislative framework and requirements. DEPP 2 Annex 1 and DEPP 2 Annex 2 therefore identify notices to be given pursuant to other enactments and the relevant FSA decision maker.
DEPP 2.5.18GRP
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) Building Societies Act 1986, section 36A: There is no right to refer a decision to issue a prohibition order under section 36A to the Tribunal. Accordingly, a decision notice under section 36A(5A) is not required to give an indication of whether any such right exists. A decision notice under section 36A(5A) may only relate to the issue of a prohibition order under section
COND 2.3.2GRP
Threshold condition 3 (Close links) implements requirements of the Post BCCI Directive, but the Act extends this condition to firms from outside the EEA and other firms which are outside the scope of the Single Market Directives and the UCITS Directive.
COND 2.3.3GRP
In assessing this threshold condition, factors which the FSA will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: (1) it is likely that the FSA will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system and to identify and assess the impact on the regulatory objectives in section 2 of the Act (The FSA's
COND 2.3.6GRP
(1) Section 420(1) of the Act (Parent and subsidiary undertaking) states that, except in relation to an incorporated friendly society, 'parent undertaking' and 'subsidiary undertaking' have the same meaning as in the Companies Acts (see section 1162 of, and schedule 7 to, the Companies Act 2006)4. These are the cases referred to in COND 2.3.7 G (1)(a) to (f).4(2) Section 420(2) of the Act supplements these definitions in two ways; these are the cases referred to in COND 2.3.7
COND 2.3.7GRP
(1) For the purposes of threshold condition 3 (Close links) and except in relation to an incorporated friendly society, an undertaking is a parent undertaking of another undertaking (a subsidiary undertaking) if any of the following apply to it:(a) it holds a majority of the voting rights in the subsidiary undertaking; or(b) it is a member of the subsidiary undertaking and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of its board of directors; or(c) it has the right to exercise
COND 2.3.10GRP
Section 420(3) of the Act (Parent and subsidiary undertaking) (supplemented by paragraph 3(3) of Schedule 6 to the Act) states that an incorporated friendly society is a parent undertaking of another body corporate (a subsidiary undertaking) if it has the following relationship to it:(1) it holds a majority of the voting rights in the subsidiary undertaking; or(2) it is a member of the subsidiary undertaking and has the right to appoint or remove a majority of the subsidiary undertaking's
COND 2.3.11GRP
For the purposes of this threshold condition 3 (Close links), an undertaking is a subsidiary undertaking of another undertaking if:(1) the other undertaking (its parent) is a member of the undertaking;(2) a majority of the undertaking's board of directors who have held office during the financial year and during the preceding financial year have been appointed solely as a result of the exercise of the parent's voting rights; and(3) no one else is the parent undertaking of the
COND 2.3.11AGRP
5Paragraphs 3(2)(e) to (f) of Schedule 6 to the Act reflect legislation initially introduced in the Post-BCCI Directive, which defines close links, in part, by reference to participation. Recital 5 of the Post-BCCI Directive gives further guidance on what is meant by ‘participation’ for the purposes of the directive. It states that the sole fact of having acquired a significant proportion of a company’s capital does not constitute participation for the purposes of the directive
SUP 5.1.2GRP
This chapter (other than the rules, and guidance on rules, in SUP 5.5 (Duties of firms)) is also relevant to certain unauthorised persons within the scope of section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) (see SUP 5.2.1 G).
SUP 5.1.3GRP
The purpose of this chapter is to give guidance on the FSA's use of the power in section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons). The purpose is also to make rules requiring a firm to include certain provisions in its contract with a skilled person and to give assistance to a skilled person. These rules are designed to ensure that the FSA receives certain information from a skilled person and that a skilled person receives assistance from a firm.
DEPP 1.2.1GRP
Section 395 of the Act (The FSA's procedures) requires the FSA to publish a statement of its procedure for the giving of statutory notices. The procedure must be designed to secure, among other things, that the decision which gives rise to the obligation to give a statutory notice is taken by a person not directly involved in establishing the evidence on which that decision is based. The types of statutory notices and related notices, and the principal references to them in the
DEPP 1.2.2GRP

Table: Summary of statutory and related notices

Notice

Description

Act reference

Further information

Warning notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA proposes to take and about the right to make representations.

Section 387

DEPP 2.2

Decision notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA has decided to take. The FSA may also give a further decision notice if the recipient of the original decision notice consents.

Section 388

DEPP 2.3

Notice of discontinuance

Identifies proceedings set out in a warning notice or decision notice and which are not being taken or are being discontinued.

Section 389

DEPP 1.2.4 G and DEPP 3.2.26 G

Final notice

Sets out the terms of the action that the FSA is taking.

Section 390

DEPP 1.2.4 G

Supervisory notice

Gives the recipient details about action that the FSA has taken or proposes to take, for example to vary a Part IV permission.

Section 395(13)

DEPP 2.2 and DEPP 2.3

DEPP 1.2.4GRP
The requirement in section 395 of the Act to publish a procedure for the giving of notices does not extend to the giving of a notice of discontinuance or a final notice. Neither of these notices is a statutory notice for the purposes of DEPP; nor is the decision to give such a notice a statutory notice associated decision.
DEPP 1.2.5GRP
Decisions on whether to give a statutory notice will be taken by a 'decision maker'. The FSA's assessment of who is the appropriate decision maker is subject to the requirements of section 395 of the Act and will depend upon the nature of the decision, including its complexity, importance and urgency. References to the 'decision maker' in DEPP are to:(1) the Regulatory Decisions Committee (RDC); or(2) FSA staff under executive procedures; or(3) FSA staff under the settlement decision
DEPP 1.2.6GRP
The decision maker will also take decisions associated with a statutory notice (a 'statutory notice associated decision'). Statutory notice associated decisions include decisions:(1) to set or extend the period for making representations;(2) on whether the FSA is required to give a copy of the statutory notice to any third party and, if so, the period for the third party to make representations; and(3) on whether to refuse access to FSA material, relevant to the relevant statutory
DISP 3.7.2RRP
Except in relation to a complaint the subject matter of which falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme, a9 money award may be such amount as the Ombudsman considers to be fair compensation for one or more of the following:9(1) financial loss (including consequential or prospective loss); or(2) pain and suffering; or(3) damage to reputation; or(4) distress or inconvenience;whether or not a court would award compensation.17
DISP 3.7.2AGRP
9In relation to a complaint the subject matter of which falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme, a money award is a payment of such amount as the Ombudsman determines that a respondent should make (or should have made) to a complainant under the scheme.
DISP 3.7.4AGRP
3The effect of section 404B(5) of the Act is that the maximum award which the Ombudsman may make also applies in relation to a complaint the subject matter of which falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme.
DISP 3.7.6GRP
17If the Ombudsman considers that fair compensation requires payment of a larger amount, he may recommend that the respondent pays the complainant the balance. The effect of section 404B(6) of the Act is that this is also the case in relation to a complaint the subject matter of which falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme.9
DISP 3.7.8RRP
17 Except in relation to a complaint the subject matter of which falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme, an9 interest award may provide for the amount payable under the money award to bear interest at a rate and as from a date specified in the award.9
DISP 3.7.11RRP
17 Except in relation to a complaint the subject matter of which falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme, a9 direction may require the respondent9 to take such steps in relation to the complainant as the Ombudsman considers just and appropriate (whether or not a court could order those steps to be taken).99
DISP 3.7.11AGRP
9In relation to a complaint the subject matter of which falls to be dealt with (or has properly been dealt with) under a consumer redress scheme, a direction may require the respondent to take such action as the Ombudsman determines the respondent should take (or should have taken) under the scheme.
DISP 3.7.13GRP
17Under the Act, a complainant can enforce through the courts a money award registered by the Ombudsman or a direction made by the Ombudsman.
DEPP 5.1.6GRP
The terms of any proposed settlement:(1) will be put in writing and be agreed by FSA staff and the person concerned;(2) may refer to a draft of the proposed statutory notices setting out the facts of the matter and the FSA's conclusions; (3) may, depending upon the stage in the enforcement process at which agreement is reached, include an agreement by the person concerned to: (a) waive and not exercise any rights under sections 387 (Warning notices) and 394 (Access to Authority
DEPP 5.1.10GRP
(1) DEPP 2.4 sets out the FSA's approach to giving third parties copies of statutory notices pursuant to section 393 (Third party rights) of the Act.(2) The decision to give a warning notice or a decision notice to a third party is a statutory notice associated decision.(3) In cases therefore where the decision to give a warning notice or decision notice is taken by settlement decision makers, those decision makers will decide whether a copy of the notice should be given to a
REC 3.3.1GRP
Under section 294 of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules), the FSA may, on the application or with the consent of a recognised body (including an overseas recognised body), direct that any notification rule is not to apply to the body or is to apply with such modifications as may be specified in the waiver.
REC 3.3.2GRP
A waiver given under section 294 of the Act may be made subject to conditions.
REC 3.3.3GRP
Under section 294(4) of the Act, before the FSA may give a waiver of notification rules, it must be satisfied that:(1) compliance by the recognised body with those notification rules, or with those rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which those rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests those rules are designed to protect.
REC 3.3.5GRP
There is no application form, but applicants should make their application formally and in writing and in accordance with any direction the FSA may make under section 294(2) of the Act. Each application should set out at least:(1) full particulars of the waiver which is requested; (2) the reason why the recognised body believes that the criteria set out in section 294(4) (and described in REC 3.3.3 G) would be met, if this waiver were granted; and (3) where the recognised body
REC 3.3.6GRP
The FSA may request further information from the applicant, before deciding whether to give a waiver under section 294 of the Act.
REC 3.3.7GRP
Any waiver given by the FSA under section 294 of the Act will be made in writing, stating: (1) the name of the recognised body in respect of which the waiver is made;(2) the notification rules which are to be waived or modified in respect of that body;(3) where relevant, the manner in which any rule is to be modified;(4) any condition or time limit to which the waiver is subject; and(5) the date from which the waiver is to take effect.
REC 3.3.9GRP
Where the FSA wishes to give a waiver under section 294 of the Act with the consent of a recognised body (rather than on the application of a recognised body), the FSA will correspond or discuss this with that body in order to agree an appropriate waiver.
REC 3.3.10GRP
The FSA will periodically review any waiver it has given. The FSA has the right to revoke a waiver under section 294(6) of the Act. This right is likely to be exercised in the event of a material change in the circumstances of the recognised body or in any fact on the basis of which the waiver was given.
SUP 5.3.1GRP
The appointment of a skilled person to produce a report under section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons) is one of the FSA's regulatory tools. The tool may be used:(1) for diagnostic purposes, to identify, assess and measure risks; (2) for monitoring purposes, to track the development of identified risks, wherever these arise;(3) in the context of preventative action, to limit or reduce identified risks and so prevent them from crystallising or increasing; and (4) for
SUP 5.3.2GRP
The decision to require a report by a skilled person will normally be prompted by a specific requirement for information, analysis of information, assessment of a situation,4 expert advice or recommendations or by a decision to seek assurance in relation to a regulatory return4. It may4 be part of the risk mitigation programme applicable to a firm, or the result of an event or development relating or relevant to a firm, prompted by a need for verification of information provided
SUP 5.3.3GRP
When making the decision to require a report by a skilled person, the FSA will have regard, on a case-by-case basis, to all relevant factors. Those are likely to include:(1) circumstances relating to the firm;(2) alternative tools available, including other statutory powers;(3) legal and procedural considerations;(4) the objectives of the FSA's enquiries;(5) cost considerations; and(6) considerations relating to FSA resources.SUP 5.3.4 G to SUP 5.3.10 G give further guidance
SUP 5.3.5GRP
The FSA will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit by FSA staff or a request for information on an informal basis); (2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Authority's power to require information);(3) appointing investigators to carry out general investigations
SUP 5.3.6GRP
The FSA will have regard to legal and procedural considerations including:(1) statutory powers: whether one of the other available statutory powers is more appropriate for the purpose than the power in section 166 of the Act (Reports by skilled persons);(2) subsequent proceedings: whether it is desirable to obtain an authoritative and independent report for use in any subsequent proceedings; and(3) application of the Handbookrules: whether it is important that the relevant rules
SUP 5.3.7GRP
The FSA will have regard to the objectives of its enquiries, and the relative effectiveness of its available powers to achieve those objectives. For example:(1) historic information or evidence: if the objectives are limited to gathering historic information, or evidence for determining whether enforcement action may be appropriate, the FSA's information gathering and investigation powers under sections 165 (Authority's power to require information), 167 (Appointment of persons
SUP 5.3.8GRP
In accordance with its general policy the FSA will have regard to the question of cost, which is particularly pertinent in relation to skilled persons because:(1) if the FSA uses the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) the firm will appoint, and will have to pay for the services of, the skilled person;(2) if the FSA uses its other information gathering and investigation powers, it will either authorise or appoint its own staff to undertake the information gathering
SUP 5.3.9GRP
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FSA will take into account relevant factors, including:(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business and its risk profile, or the operation of its information systems, or improvements to its systems
DEPP 3.2.10GRP
If the RDC considers it relevant to its consideration, it may ask FSA staff to explain or provide any or all of the following:(1) additional information about the matter (which FSA staff may seek by further investigation); or(2) further explanation of any aspect of the FSA staff recommendation or accompanying papers; or(3) information about FSA priorities and policies (including as to the FSA's view on the law or on the correct legal interpretation of provisions of the Act).
DEPP 3.2.11GRP
The RDC has no power under the Act to require persons to attend before it or provide information. It is not a tribunal and will make a decision based on all the relevant information available to it, which may include views of FSA staff about the relative quality of witness and other evidence.
DEPP 3.2.14GRP
If the RDC decides that the FSA should give a warning noticeor a first supervisory notice:(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the warning notice or first supervisory notice, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions;(3) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the notice to be given; and(4) the RDC staff will make appropriate arrangements for the disclosure
DEPP 3.2.15GRP
(1) A warning notice or a first supervisory notice will (as required by the Act) specify the time allowed for making representations. This will not be less than 28 days.(2) The FSA will also, when giving a warning notice or a first supervisory notice, specify a time within which the recipient is required to indicate whether he wishes to make oral representations.
DEPP 3.2.24GRP
If the RDC decides that the FSA should give a decision notice or a second supervisory notice:(1) the RDC will settle the wording of the notice which will include a brief summary of the key representations made and how they have been dealt with, and will ensure that the notice complies with the relevant provisions of the Act;(2) the RDC will make any relevant statutory notice associated decisions, including whether the FSA is required to give a copy of the notice to a third party;
DEPP 3.2.27GRP
A decision by the RDC to give a decision notice or supervisory notice may lead to a reference to the Tribunal under the Act. The conduct of proceedings before the Tribunal is not however a matter for the RDC.
SUP 4.5.1RRP
An actuary2 appointed under this chapter2 must be objective in performing his duties.2
SUP 4.5.3RRP
An actuary appointed under this chapter2 must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.2
SUP 4.5.7GRP
(1) Actuaries appointed under this chapter made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the Authority). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.4(2) These regulations oblige actuaries to report certain matters to the FSA. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an actuary does not
SUP 4.5.8GRP
SUP 4.5.9 R to SUP 4.5.11 G apply to a person who is or has been an actuary appointed under this chapter2.2
SUP 4.5.9RRP
An actuary appointed under this chapter2 must notify the FSA without delay if he:2(1) is removed from office by a firm; or(2) resigns before his term of office expires; or(3) is not reappointed by a firm.
SUP 4.5.10RRP
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under this chapter2, or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the FSA without delay:222(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the FSA's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
SUP 4.5.12GRP
2Section 341 of the Act (Access to books etc.) provides that an actuary appointed under or as a result of the Act:(1) has a right of access at all times to the firm's books, accounts and vouchers; and(2) is entitled to require from the firm's officers such information and explanation as he reasonably considers necessary to perform his duties as actuary.
SUP 4.5.13RRP
2When carrying out his duties, an actuary appointed under this chapter must pay due regard to generally accepted actuarial practice.3
SUP 6.3.16GRP
(1) Section 51(2) of the Act (Applications under this Part) requires that the application for variation of Part IV permission must contain a statement:(a) of the desired variation; and(b) of the regulated activity or regulated activities which the firm proposes to carry on if its permission is varied.(2) The full form and content of the application for variation of Part IV permission is a matter for direction by the FSA, who will determine the additional information and documentation
SUP 6.3.28GRP
(1) The FSA is required by section 41(2) of the Act to ensure that a firm applying to vary its Part IV permission satisfies and will continue to satisfy the threshold conditions in relation to all the regulated activities for which the firm has or will have Part IV permission after the variation. However, the FSA's duty under the Act does not prevent it, having regard to that duty, from taking such steps as it considers necessary in relation to a particular firm, to meet any
SUP 6.3.31GRP
In considering whether to grant a firm's application to vary its Part IV permission, the FSA will also have regard, under section 49(1) of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant), to any person6 appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relationship with the firm which is relevant. The Financial Groups Directive Regulations make special consultation provisions where the FSA is exercising its functions under Part IV of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activities) for
SUP 6.3.35GRP
Under section 52(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the FSA has six months to consider a completed application from the date of receipt.
SUP 6.3.36GRP
If the FSA receives an application which is incomplete (that is, if information or a document required as part of the application is not provided), section 52(2) of the Act requires the FSA to determine that incomplete application within 12 months of the initial receipt of the application.
SUP 6.3.42GRP
(1) Firms should be aware that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power to vary or cancel their Part IV permission if they do not (see EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms))9:(a) commence a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission within a period of at least 12 months from the date of being given; or(b) carry on a regulated activity for which they have Part IV permission for a period
SUP 18.2.14GRP
Under section 109(2) of the Act a scheme report may only be made by a person:(1) appearing to the FSA to have the skills necessary to enable him to make a proper report; and(2) nominated or approved for the purpose by the FSA.
SUP 18.2.20GRP
Under section 107(2) of the Act, the application to the court may be made by the transferor or the transferee or both. As soon as reasonably practical, the intended applicant should choose their nominee for independent expert in the light of any criteria advised by the FSA and advise the FSA of their choice, unless the FSA wishes them to defer nomination or to make its own nomination. The notification should be accompanied by reasons why the party considers the nominee to be a
SUP 18.2.24GRP
The guidance set out in SUP 18.2.25 G to SUP 18.2.30 G derives from the requirements of the Insurance Directives and the associated agreements between EEA regulators. Schedule 12 of the Act implements some of these requirements.
SUP 18.2.31GRP
Under section 109 of the Act, a scheme report must accompany an application to the court to approve an insurance business transfer scheme. This report must be made in a form approved by the FSA. The FSA would not expect to approve the form of a scheme report unless it complies with SUP 18.2.33 G and would expect to approve the form of a scheme report that complies. SUP 18.2.32 G and SUP 18.2.34 G to SUP 18.2.41 G provide additional guidance for the independent expert.
SUP 18.2.41GRP
A transfer may provide for benefits to be reduced for some or all of the policies being transferred. This might happen if the transferor is in financial difficulties. If there is such a proposal, the independent expert should report on what reductions he considers ought to be made, unless either:(1) the information required is not available and will not become available in time for his report, for instance it might depend on future events; or(2) otherwise, he is unable to report
SUP 18.2.54GRP
The FSA may exercise its other powers under the Act, if it considers this a more effective method of achieving its regulatory objectives.
SUP 11.7.2GRP
Section 191A deals with the procedure the FSA must follow where there has been a failure to notify or a default.44
SUP 11.7.3GRP
The FSA may serve restriction notices in certain circumstances in accordance with section 191B of the Act4.4
SUP 11.7.4GRP
The FSA may apply to the court for an order for the sale of shares in accordance with section 191C of the Act4.4
SUP 11.7.13GRP
Before making a determination under section 185 or4 giving a4warning notice under section 191A4, the FSAmust comply with the 4 requirements as to consultation with EC41competent authorities set out in section 188 of the Act .44144
BIPRU 12.8.2GRP
However, the FSA recognises that there may be circumstances in which it would be appropriate for a firm to rely on liquidity resources which can be made available to it by other members of its group, or for a firm to rely on liquidity resources elsewhere in the firm for the purposes of ensuring that its UKbranch has adequate liquidity resources in respect of the activities carried on from the branch. Where the FSA is satisfied that the statutory tests in section 148 (Modification
BIPRU 12.8.4GRP
In considering whether the statutory tests in section 148 of the Act have been met, the FSA will, amongst others, have regard to the factors detailed below in relation to an intra-group liquidity modification (of the kind permitting the inclusion in a firm's liquidity resources of parent undertaking liquidity support) and a whole-firm liquidity modification. In practice it is likely that the FSA will view these as preconditions to the grant of an intra-group liquidity modification
BIPRU 12.8.5GRP
This section represents merely an indication of the matters to which the FSA will have regard in considering an application for a whole-firm liquidity modification or an intra-group liquidity modification. In considering such an application, the FSA will always take into account anything that it reasonably considers to be relevant for the purposes of assessing whether the statutory tests in section 148 of the Act are met. In doing so, it will have regard to the role and importance
BIPRU 12.8.7GRP
The FSA recognises that a firm may be part of a wider group which manages its liquidity on a group-wide basis. A firm which considers that the statutory tests in section 148 of the Act are met may apply for an intra-group liquidity modification permitting it to rely on liquidity support from elsewhere in its group. Until a firm has such a modification it will need to meet the overall liquidity adequacy rule from its own liquidity resources. The effect of an intra-group liquidity
BIPRU 12.8.10GRP
The FSA also recognises that a firm incorporated in the United Kingdom and to which BIPRU 12 applies may wish to rely on liquidity support from a subsidiary undertaking of that firm which is incorporated in a country or territory outside the United Kingdom. The FSA is, however, likely to consider that an application for an intra-group liquidity modification that contemplates reliance for liquidity support on only, or mostly, an applicant firm's overseas subsidiary undertakings
BIPRU 12.8.11GRP
In each application for an intra-group liquidity modification, the FSA will consider the extent to which it is appropriate to modify the overall liquidity adequacy rule to allow reliance by an applicant firm on liquidity resources elsewhere in a firm'sgroup. However, it is unlikely that the FSA would consider the conditions in section 148 of the Act to be met in circumstances in which the overall liquidity adequacy rule was modified to allow unlimited reliance on liquidity resources
BIPRU 12.8.16GRP
It will not always be the case that an applicant firm wishes to rely on a parent undertaking, or other group entity, that is itself subject to a regime of liquidity regulation, whether or not equivalent to the FSA's. In assessing a firm's application for an intra-group liquidity modification, the FSA will always have regard to the regulatory framework to which the entity on which it is proposed to rely for liquidity support is subject. Other things being equal, however, the FSA
BIPRU 12.8.22GRP
In relation to an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm, the overall liquidity adequacy rule provides that, for the purpose of complying with that rule, a firm may not, in relation to its UKbranch, include liquidity resources other than those which satisfy the conditions in BIPRU 12.2.3 R. Those conditions seek to ensure that a firm of this kind has a reserve of liquidity for operational purposes that is under the control of, and available for use by, that firm'sUKbranch.
BIPRU 12.8.30GRP
In determining the appropriate duration of a whole-firm liquidity modification, the FSA will have regard to the role and importance of the UKbranch in question in the UK1financial system. In some cases, the FSA may take the view that a whole-firm liquidity modification, covering a UKbranch whose role and importance in the UK1financial system are significant, ought to be reviewed more regularly than one granted in respect of a less systemically significant branch. The FSA will
SUP 3.8.2RRP
An auditor of a firm must cooperate with the FSA in the discharge of its functions under the Act.
SUP 3.8.3GRP
The FSA may ask the auditor to attend meetings and to supply it with information about the firm. In complying with SUP 3.8.2 R, the auditor should attend such meetings as the FSA requests and supply it with any information the FSA may reasonably request about the firm to enable the FSA to discharge its functions under the Act.
SUP 3.8.4RRP
An auditor of a firm must give any skilled person appointed by the firm all assistance that person reasonably requires (see SUP 5 and section 166(5) of the Act (Reports by skilled persons)).
SUP 3.8.8GRP
SUP 3.6.1 R requires a firm to cooperate with its auditor. SUP 3.6.3 G refers to the rights to information which an auditor is granted by the Act. SUP 3.6.4 G refers to similar rights granted by the Companies Act 1985 or where applicable, the Companies Act 2006,2 the Building Societies Act 1986 and the Friendly Societies Act 1992.
SUP 3.8.9GRP
Within the legal constraints that apply, the FSA may pass on to an auditor any information which it considers relevant to his function. An auditor is bound by the confidentiality provisions set out in Part XXIII of the Act (Public record, disclosure of information and cooperation) in respect of confidential information he receives from the FSA. An auditor may not pass on such confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial
SUP 3.8.10GRP
(1) Auditors are subject to regulations made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to the FSA). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an auditor of an authorised person in his capacity as an auditor of a person who has close links with the authorised person.3(2) These regulations oblige auditors to report certain matters to the FSA. Sections 342(3) and 343(3) of the Act provide that an auditor does not contravene
SUP 12.2.1GRP
(1) Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition), no person may carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purport to do so, unless he is an authorised person, or he is an exempt person in relation to that activity.(2) A person will be an exempt person if he satisfies the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act, guidance on which is given in SUP 12.2.2 G. A person who is exempt as a result of satisfying these conditions is referred to in the Act as an appointed
SUP 12.2.2GRP
(1) A person must satisfy the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act to become an appointed representative. These are that:(a) the person must not be an authorised person, that is, he must not have permission under the Act to carry on any regulated activity in his own right (section 39(1) of the Act); (b) the person must have entered into a contract with an authorised person, referred to in the Act as the 'principal', which:(i) permits or requires him to carry on business of
SUP 12.2.3GRP
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.
SUP 12.2.4GRP
The Act and the Appointed Representative Regulations do not prevent an appointed representative from acting for more than one principal. However, SUP 12.5.6A R (Prohibition of multiple principals for certain activities) prevents this for particular kinds of business.5
SUP 12.2.7GRP
(1) The Appointed Representatives Regulations are made by the Treasury under section 39(1) of the Act. These regulations describe, among other things, the business for which an appointed representative may be exempt, which is business which comprises any of:(a) dealing in investments as agent (article 21 of the Regulated Activities Order) where the transaction relates to a pure protection contract (but only where the contract is not a long-term care insurance contract) or general
SUP 12.2.9GRP
To become an introducer appointed representative, a person must meet the conditions in the Act to become an appointed representative (see SUP 12.2.2 G).5
SUP 12.2.13GRP
(1) An introducer is an individual appointed by a firm or by an appointed representative of such a firm to carry out, in the course of designated investment business, either or both of the following activities:4(a) effecting introductions; (b) distributing non-real time financial promotions.(2) An introducer is not an exempt person under section 39 of the Act (unless he is also an introducer appointed representative) and hence cannot benefit from the exemption to carry on regulated
SUP 2.1.3GRP
Achieving the regulatory objectives involves the FSA informing itself of developments in firms and in markets. The Act requires the FSA to monitor a firm's compliance with requirements imposed by or under the Act, or by any directly applicable Community regulation or decision made under MiFID or the UCITS Directive or the auction regulation4 (paragraph 6 (1) of Schedule 1). The Act also requires the FSA to take certain steps to cooperate with other relevant bodies and 3regulators
SUP 2.1.4GRP
The FSA receives the information in SUP 2.1.3 G through a variety of means, including notifications by firms (see SUP 15) and regular reporting by firms (see SUP 16). This chapter is concerned with the methods of information gathering that the FSA may use on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. This chapter does not deal with the information gathering powers that the FSA has under the Unfair Terms Regulations. These are dealt with in UNFCOG2.12
SUP 2.1.5GRP
Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations) gives the FSA statutory powers, including: (1) to require the provision of information (see sections 165, 165A, 3EG 32 and FINMAR 13);332(2) to require reports from skilled persons (see section 166 and SUP 5);(3) to appoint investigators (see sections 167, 168 and 169 of the Act and EG 32); and2(4) to apply for a warrant to enter premises (see section 176 of the Act and EG 42).2
SUP 2.1.7GRP
The FSA operates in the context of the Act and the general law. The purpose of SUP 2.2 is to explain how certain provisions of the Act and the general law are relevant to the FSA's methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 and SUP 2.4.
SUP 2.1.8GRP
The purpose of SUP 2.3 is to amplify Principle 11 in the context of information gathering by the FSA on its own initiative in the discharge of its functions under the Act. SUP 2.3 therefore sets out, in guidance on Principle 11 and in rules, how the FSA expects firms to deal with the FSA in that context, including the steps that a firm should take with a view to ensuring that certain connected persons should also cooperate with the FSA.
PERG 4.11.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to regulated activities which are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a borrower is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom,
PERG 4.11.2GRP
Even if a person concludes that he is not carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, he will need to ensure that he does not contravene other provisions of the Act that apply to unauthorised persons. These include the controls on financial promotion (section 21 (Financial promotion) of the Act) (see PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)), and on giving the impression that a person is authorised (section 24 (False claims to be authorised or exempt)).
PERG 4.11.4GRP
Section 418 of the Act deals with the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom. It extends the meaning that 'carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out additional cases. The Act states that in these cases a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
PERG 4.11.5GRP
For the purposes of regulated mortgage activities, sections 418(2), (4), (5), (5A) and (6) are relevant, as follows:(1) Section 418(2) refers to a case where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity in another EEA State in the exercise of rights under a Single Market Directive. The only Single Market Directive which is relevant to mortgages is the Banking Consolidation Directive.(2) Section 418(4) refers to the case where a UK-based person carries on a regulated activity
PERG 4.11.8GRP
The FSA's view of the effect of the Act and Regulated Activities Order in various territorial scenarios is set out in the remainder of this section. In those scenarios:(1) the term "service provider" is used to describe a person carrying on any of the regulated mortgage activities;(2) the term "borrower" refers to a borrower who is an individual and not a trustee; the position of a borrower acting as a trustee is not considered; and(3) it is assumed that the activity is not an
PERG 4.11.10GRP
Where a person is carrying on any of the regulated mortgage activities from an establishment maintained by him in the United Kingdom, that person will be 'carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom'. The location and residence of the borrower is irrelevant. That is the practical effect of sections 418(4), (5) and (6) of the Act.
PERG 4.11.12GRP
If a service provider is overseas, the question of whether that person is carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom will depend upon:(1) the type of regulated activity being carried on;(2) section 418 of the Act;(3) the residence and location of the borrower;(4) the application of the overseas persons exclusion in article 72(5A) to (5F) of the Regulated Activities Order; and(5) whether the service provider is carrying on an electronic commerce activity.The factors