Related provisions for COLL 5.2.23A
1 - 20 of 202 items.
GENPRU 2.2.17 R requires a firm to calculate its capital resources for the purpose of GENPRU in accordance with the capital resources table, subject to the limits in GENPRU 2.2.32 R to GENPRU 2.2.41 R. The capital resources table and GENPRU 2.2.251 R require a firm to deduct from total capital resources the value of any asset included in an insurance fund which is not an admissible asset as listed in GENPRU 2 Annex 7. GENPRU 2 Annex 7 provides that a derivative, quasi-derivative
(1) 3GENPRU 2 Annex 7 R (3) requires firms to consider first whether an asset is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction notwithstanding that it is also capable of falling within one or more other categories in GENPRU 2 Annex 7 R (1). If it is a derivative or quasi-derivative transaction it is only admissible if it satisfies the conditions for it to be approved under INSPRU 3.2.5 R. Firms should be able to justify whether or not their assets are derivatives or quasi-derivatives.(2)
A derivative or quasi-derivative is held for the purpose of efficient portfolio management if the firm reasonably believes the derivative or quasi-derivative (either alone or together with any other covered transactions) enables the firm to achieve its investment objectives by one of the following (or, in relation to permitted links, in a manner which includes but is not limited to)1:(1) generating additional capital or income in one of the ways described in INSPRU 3.2.7 R; or(2)
The generation of additional capital or income falls within INSPRU 3.2.6R (1) where it arises from:(1) taking advantage of pricing imperfections in relation to the acquisition and disposal (or disposal and acquisition) of rights in relation to assets the same as, or equivalent to, admissible assets or permitted links1; or(2) receiving a premium for selling a covered call option or its equivalent, the underlying of which is an admissible asset or permitted link1, even if that additional
For the purposes of INSPRU 3.2.8 R, investment risk is the risk that the assets held by a firm:(1) (where they are admissible assets held by the firm to cover its technical provisions) might not be:(a) of a value at least equal to the amount of those technical provisions as required by INSPRU 1.1.20 R; or(b) of appropriate safety, yield and marketability as required by INSPRU 1.1.34R (1)(a); or(c) of an appropriate currency match as required by INSPRU 3.1.53 R;(2) (where they
In assessing whether investment risk is reduced, the impact of a transaction on both the assets and liabilities should be considered. In particular, where the amount of liabilities depends upon the fluctuations in an index or other factor, investment risk is reduced where assets whose value fluctuates in the same way match those liabilities. In appropriate circumstances this may include:(1) a derivative or quasi-derivative that is linked to the same index as the liabilities from
An obligation to pay a monetary amount (whether or not falling in INSPRU 3.2.16 R) is covered if:(1) the firm holds admissible assets or permitted links1 that are sufficient in value so that the firm reasonably believes that following reasonably foreseeable adverse variations (relying solely on cashflows from, or from realising, those assets) it could pay the monetary amount in the right currency when it falls due; or(2) the obligation to pay the monetary amount is offset by a
A firm is required to cover a derivative under INSPRU 3.2.14R whether it satisfies the other conditions for approval under INSPRU 3.2.5R or not. Under INSPRU 3.2.17R a firm may cover an obligation to pay a monetary amount by setting up a provision. If the derivative is not covered at any time by other means then a provision needs to be set up to complete the cover taking into account obligations to pay monetary amounts that would arise if, for example, an obligation to transfer
The third purpose of cover is that it protects against the risk that the firm may not be able to deliver assets (including money in any currency) of the right type when the obligation falls due under the transaction. An obligation to deliver assets is covered only if the firm holds those assets or has entered into an offsetting transaction that would deliver those assets when needed. An obligation to pay money is offset only if the firm holds cash in the right currency, its equivalent
Assets that have been lent by the firm are not available for cover, unless:(1) they are non-monetary assets that have been lent under a transaction that fulfils the conditions in INSPRU 3.2.36 R; and(2) the firm reasonably believes the assets to be obtainable (by return or re-acquisition) in time to meet the obligation for which cover is required.
Examples of cover by assets for the purposes of INSPRU 3.2.16 R:(1) a bought put option (or a sold call option) on 1000 1 shares (fully paid) of ABC plc is covered by an existing holding in the fund of 1000 1 shares (fully paid) of ABC plc;(2) a bought call option (or sold put option) on 1000 ordinary 1 shares (fully paid) of ABC plc is covered by cash (or its equivalent) which is sufficient in amount to meet the purchase price of the shares on exercise of the option;(3) a bought
(1) For the purposes of GENPRU 2 Annex 7 (Admissible assets in insurance), a stock lending transaction (including a repo transaction) 3is approved if:(a) the assets lent are admissible assets;(b) , the counterparty is an authorised person, an approved counterparty, a person registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission of the United States of America or a bank, or a branch of a bank, supervised, and authorised to deal in investments as principal, with
(1) 1For the purposes of the rules on permitted links, a stock lending transaction (including a repo transaction) is approved if:(a) the assets lent are permitted links;(b) the counterparty is an authorised person, an approved counterparty, a person registered as a broker-dealer with the Securities and Exchange Commission of the United States of America or a bank, or a branch of a bank, supervised, and authorised to deal in investments as principal, with respect to OTC derivatives
For the purposes of assessing adequate quality in INSPRU 3.2.38R (3), reference should be made to the criteria for credit risk loss mitigation set out in INSPRU 2.1.16 R. The valuation rules in GENPRU 1.3 apply for the purpose of determining the value of both collateral received, and the securities transferred, by the firm. In addition, where collateral takes the form of assets transferred, under the rules in GENPRU any such asset that is not an admissible asset (see GENPRU 2
For the purpose of BIPRU 12.5.11R, a firm must assume that the second liquidity stress is characterised by:(1) uncertainty as to the accuracy of the valuation attributed to that firm's assets and those of its counterparties;(2) inability to realise, or ability to realise only at excessive cost, particular classes of assets, including those which represent claims on other participants in the financial markets or which were originated by them;(3) uncertainty as to the ability of
In the FSA's view, Type A wholesale funding is likely to include at least funding which:(1) is accepted from a credit institution, local authority, insurance undertaking, pension fund, money market fund, asset manager (including a hedge fund manager), government-sponsored agency, sovereign government, or sophisticated non-financial corporation; or(2) is accepted through the treasury function of a sophisticated non-financial corporation which may be assumed to respond swiftly to
For the purpose of BIPRU 12.5.31R, the FSA would expect a firm, in relation to each payment or settlement system in which it participates directly, to provide details of:(1) that firm's charges for providing intra-day credit;(2) any collateral requirements which it applies to its customers;(3) the credit limits that it imposes (and the circumstances, if any, in which credit may be provided notwithstanding a limit breach);(4) the extent to which the customers of that firm make
For the purpose of BIPRU 12.5.50G (2), a firm should consider the impact of the following events on the likelihood of a call for liquidity support: inability of a vehicle to roll over commercial paper (due either to disruption in the CP market or to concern as to the quality of the assets securitised) and, in relation to sponsored vehicles, concern as to the solvency of that firm as sponsor and, separately, the possibility of draw down of undrawn commitments entered into by the
For the purpose of assessing its exposure to marketable assets risk, a firm must assess how the marketable assets comprised in its liquidity resources will behave:(1) under normal financial conditions; and(2) under the liquidity stresses identified in BIPRU 12.5.6R, including an assessment of the effect of these stresses on:(a) its ability to derive funding from its marketable assets in a timely fashion;(b) the potential for using those assets as collateral to raise secured funding
The FSA regards as marketable those of a firm's assets that it is able to sell outright or repo. For liquidity management purposes, a firm would ordinarily expect to hold a stock of assets of this kind in order to reduce the likelihood that it may need to borrow unsecured at short notice. To the extent that these assets may behave differently under stress conditions than under normal financial conditions, a firm is subject to marketable assets risk.
The behaviour of a firm's marketable assets under conditions of stress is likely to depend on a number of different factors, including:(1) the depth and competitiveness of the market for the marketable asset in question, the size of the bid-offer spread, the presence of committed market-makers, the nature of the information available to potential counterparties, the degree of structural complexity of the assets in question and the assets eligibility in central bank market operations
In considering its operational capability to generate funding from assets, a firm should be aware that its capability in this regard is likely to depend on:(1) whether it has in place arrangements for repo;(2) the extent to which that firm already holds a significant proportion of the market for the marketable asset in question;(3) the extent to which that firm periodically realises some or all of its holdings of that asset; and(4) that firm's accounting treatment and valuation
For the purpose of its ILAA submission to the FSA, a firm must provide the FSA with an analysis of the profile of its marketable assets as at the date of submission in a way that:(1) separately identifies its marketable assets according to asset class, maturity, currency, their eligibility for use in central bank monetary operations and liquidity facilities and any other characteristic that it uses in its liquidity management; and(2) assesses the degree of diversification achieved
For the purpose of assessing its exposure to non-marketable assets risk, a firm must assess how the non-marketable assets in its liquidity resources will behave:(1) under normal financial conditions; and(2) under the liquidity stresses required by BIPRU 12.5.6 R, including an assessment of the effect of these stresses on:(a) the firm's ability to derive funding from its non-marketable assets; and(b) the impact on the firm's liquidity position of any consequences for its funding
BIPRU 12.2.5 G notes that a firm should include in its liquidity resources sufficient assets which are marketable or otherwise realisable. The FSA considers those assets which are capable of realisation, but other than through repo or outright sale, as non-marketable assets. To the extent that these assets may behave differently under stress conditions than under normal financial conditions, a firm is subject to non-marketable assets risk. Different forms of non-marketable assets
In addition to realising a firm's marketable assets, a firm can meet its outflows in part by expected inflows from maturing non-marketable assets such as retail loans. Inflows from these assets (principal and interest) may in stressed conditions be affected by counterparty behaviour, exposing that firm to non-marketable assets risk.
For the purpose of the assessment in BIPRU 12.5.67R, a firm should ensure that it assesses repayment behaviour at a level of granularity sufficient to enable it to draw informed conclusions about its liquidity exposure. The FSA would expect a firm's assessment to analyse separately the non-marketable assets risk associated with each of its relevant products and with each type of counterparty from whom it is expecting repayments.
A firm may also use its unsecured wholesale assets to generate liquidity, otherwise than by outright sale or repo. A firm may, for example, choose to generate funding from some of the assets included in its liquidity resources by using them in securitisation or covered bond programmes. Assets that are typically used to raise liquidity in this manner include residential mortgage loans; commercial mortgage and other loans; credit card and automobile receivables, which have been
The assessment required by BIPRU 12.5.63R is particularly important for a firm which:(1) ordinarily does not raise funding from its non-marketable assets in this way; or(2) places proportionately greater reliance on securitisation programmes as compared to other funding strategies to generate liquidity.
In complying with BIPRU 12.5.63R, a firm must in particular assess the non-marketable assets risk associated with asset securitisations, having regard to:(1) the existence of early amortisation triggers and the consequences of their operation; and(2) its financing of assets which are warehoused prior to their securitisation.
A firm which chooses to warehouse assets in the way described in BIPRU 12.5.72R should consider the particular risks that arise from the method of financing that it uses to pre-fund those assets. For example, financing of warehoused assets by means of short-term (rather than long-term) funding is more likely to put that firm under liquidity pressure in the event that its proposed securitisation is not completed (either at all, or at the expected date).
The scheme property of each UCITS scheme must be invested only in accordance with the relevant provisions in sections COLL 5.2 to COLL 5.5 that are applicable to that UCITS scheme and up to any maximum limit so stated, but, the instrument constituting the scheme may further restrict:(1) the kind of property in which the scheme property may be invested;(2) the proportion of the capital property of the UCITS scheme be invested in assets of any description;(3) the descriptions of
(1) 7An authorised fund manager should not invest the scheme property of a UCITS scheme in units of a closed end fund for the purpose of circumventing the investment limits set down in this section.(2) When required to assess whether the corporate governance mechanisms of a closed end fund in contractual form are equivalent to those applied to companies, the authorised fund manager should consider whether the contract on which the closed end fund is based provides its investors
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in any other investment which shall be taken to be a transferable security for the purposes of investment by a UCITS scheme provided the investment:(a) fulfils the criteria for transferable securities set out in COLL 5.2.7A R; and(b) is backed by or linked to the performance of other assets, which may differ from those in which a UCITS scheme can invest.(2) Where an investment in (1) contains an embedded derivative component (see COLL 5.2.19R (3A)),
12The ability to hold up to 10% of the scheme property in ineligible assets under COLL 5.2.8 R (4) is subject to the following limitations:(1) for a qualifying money market fund, the 10% restriction is limited to high quality money market instruments with a maturity or residual maturity of not more than 397 days, or regular yield adjustments consistent with such a maturity, and with a weighted average maturity of no more than 60 days;(2) for a short-term money market fund or a
(1) A transaction in derivatives or a forward transaction must not be effected for a UCITS scheme unless:(a) the transaction is of a kind specified in COLL 5.2.20 R (Permitted transactions (derivatives and forwards)); and(b) the transaction is covered, as required by COLL 5.3.3A R (Cover for investment in derivatives and forward transactions).1313(2) Where a UCITS scheme invests in derivatives, the exposure to the underlying assets must not exceed the limits in COLL 5.2.11 R (Spread:
(1) A transaction in a derivative must:(a) be in an approved derivative; or(b) be one which complies with COLL 5.2.23 R (OTC transactions in derivatives).(2) The underlying of a transaction in a derivative must consist of any one or more of the following to which the scheme is dedicated:(a) transferable securities permitted under COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(a) to (c) and COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(e)7;(b) approved money-market instruments7 permitted underCOLL 5.2.8 R (3)(a) to COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(d)7;77(c)
(1) 7The financial indices referred to in COLL 5.2.20R (2)(f) are those which satisfy the following criteria:(a) the index is sufficiently diversified;(b) the index represents an adequate benchmark for the market to which it refers; and (c) the index is published in an appropriate manner.(2) A financial index is sufficiently diversified if:(a) it is composed in such a way that price movements or trading activities regarding one component do not unduly influence the performance
(1) 7An index based on derivatives on commodities or an index on property may be regarded as a financial index of the type referred to in COLL 5.2.20R (2)(f) provided it satisfies the criteria for financial indices set out in COLL 5.2.20A R.(2) If the composition of an index is not sufficiently diversified in order to avoid undue concentration, its underlying assets should be combined with the other assets of the UCITS scheme when assessing compliance with the requirements on
[deleted]131(1) In the FSA's view the requirement in COLL 5.2.22R (1)(a) can be met where:(a) the risks of the underlying financial instrument of a derivative can be appropriately represented by another financial instrument and the underlying financial instrument is highly liquid; or(b) the authorised fund manager or the depositary has the right to settle the derivative in cash, and cover exists within the scheme property which falls within one of the following asset classes:(i)
(1) Notwithstanding COLL 5.2.11 R (Spread: general), a7UCITS scheme may invest up to 20% in value of the scheme property in shares and debentures which are issued by the same body where the investment policy of that scheme as stated in the most recently published prospectus is to replicate the composition of a relevant index which satisfies the criteria specified in COLL 5.2.33 R (Relevant indices).7(1A) Replication of the composition of a relevant index shall be understood to
INSPRU 1.5.18 R, INSPRU 1.5.21 R, INSPRU 1.5.30 R and INSPRU 1.5.31 R require a firm to identify the assets attributable to the receipts of the long-term insurance business, called long-term insurance assets, and only to apply those assets for the purpose of that business. This has the effect of prohibiting a composite firm from using long-term insurance assets to meet general insurance liabilities. It also keeps long-term insurance assets separate from shareholder funds.
A firm carrying on long-term insurance business must identify the assets relating to its long-term insurance business which it is required to hold by virtue of :33(1) in the case of a pure reinsurer:(a) INSPRU 1.1.20 R or INSPRU 1.1.21 R; and (b) INSPRU 3.1.61A R; and 3(2) in any other case:3(a) INSPRU 1.1.20 R or INSPRU 1.1.21 R; and3(b) INSPRU 3.1.57 R and INSPRU 3.1.58 R.3
3(1) INSPRU 1.1.16 R requires a firm to establish adequate technical provisions for its long-term insurance contracts. INSPRU 1.1.20 R requires a firm which is not a composite firm to hold admissible assets of a value at least equal to the amount of the technical provisions and its other long-term insurance liabilities. INSPRU 1.1.21 R ensures that a composite firm identifies separate admissible assets with a value at least equal to the technical provisions for long-term insurance
INSPRU 1.5.18 R does not prohibit a firm from identifying other assets as being available to meet the liabilities of its long-term insurance business. It may transfer such other assets to a long-term insurance fund (see INSPRU 1.5.21 R and INSPRU 1.5.22 R ) and the transfer will take effect when it is recorded in the firm's accounting records (see INSPRU 1.5.23 R). After the transfer takes effect, a firm may not transfer the assets out of a long-term insurance fund except where
(1) A firm's long-term insurance assets are the items in (2), adjusted to take account of:(a) outgo in respect of the firm'slong-term insurance business; and(b) any transfers made in accordance with INSPRU 1.5.27 R.(2) The items are:(a) the assets identified under INSPRU 1.5.18 R (including assets into which those assets have been converted) but excluding any assets identified as being held to cover liabilities in respect of subordinated debt3;(b) any other assets identified by
(1) Unless (2) applies, all the long-term insurance assets of the firm constitute its long-term insurance fund.(2) Where a firm identifies particular long-term insurance assets in connection with different parts of its long-term insurance business, the assets identified in relation to each such part constitute separate long-term insurance funds of the firm.
Firms must ensure that long-term insurance assets are separately identified and allocated to a long-term insurance fund at all times. Assets in external accounts, for example at banks, custodians, or brokers should be segregated in the firm's books and records into separate accounts for long-term insurance business and general insurance business. Where a firm has more than one long-term insurance fund, a separate accounting record must be maintained for each fund. Accounting records
INSPRU 1.1.27 R and INSPRU 1.1.28 R provide further constraints on the transfer of assets out of a with-profits fund. INSPRU 1.1.27 R requires a firm to have admissible assets in each of its with-profits funds to cover the technical provisions and other long-term insurance liabilities relating to all the business in that fund. INSPRU 1.1.28 R requires a realistic basis life firm to ensure that the realistic value of assets for each of its with-profits funds is at least equal to
In the FSA's view, this means that the reasonable investor must be satisfied that what he will get when he realises his investment is his proportionate share in the value of BC's underlying assets, less any dealing costs. In other words, that he is satisfied he will get net asset value. The investment condition focuses on the way the body corporate operates over time, and not by reference to particular issues of shares or securities (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition
For the 'satisfaction test' to be met, there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could form a view. He must be satisfied that the value of BC's property will be the basis of a calculation used for the whole, or substantially the whole, of his investment. The FSA considers that the circumstances, or combination of circumstances, in which a reasonable investor would be in a position to form this view include:(1) where the basis of net asset valuation
PERG 9.9.3 G (2)and PERG 9.9.3 G (3) refer to circumstances where the reasonable investor may be satisfied that he can realise his investment at net asset value because of arrangements made to ensure that the shares or securities trade at net asset value on a market. There may, for example, be cases of market dealing where the price of shares or securities will not depend on the market. An example is where BC or a third party undertakes to ensure that the market value reflects
However, where there is a market, the FSA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FSA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a
The fact that the definition must be applied to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general)) is also relevant here. So, for example, in a take-over situation the fact that a bidder may be willing to provide an exit route for an investment at net asset value will be irrelevant within the context of the definition. This is so even if an investor invests in particular shares or securities in the knowledge or expectation or in anticipation
The expression 'wholly or mainly' in section 236(3)(b) determines the extent of the permissible departure from the link between the price of BC's shares or securities and the value of its net assets. The word 'mainly' introduces some flexibility to the process to allow for limited account to be taken of factors other than the value of BC's assets that may result in the sum realised failing to reflect the true net asset value. Such factors may include:(1) the payment by the investor
The first condition is that:(1) no less than 75% of the firm's total liabilities are accounted for by retail deposits and:2(a) 2the firm's total assets do not exceed 250 million; or (b) 2the firms total assets do not exceed 1 billion and no less than 70% of those assets are accounted for by:(i) assets of the kind that fall into BIPRU 12.7.2 R and which the firm counts towards its simplified buffer requirement; and(ii) retail loans; or(c) 2no less than 70% of the firm's total assets
(1) The wholesale net cash outflow component is a firm's peak cumulative wholesale net cash outflow over the next three months where the peak is established by:(a) calculating the daily wholesale net cash flow by reference to a firm's wholesale assets maturing that day and its wholesale liabilities falling due on that day;(b) for each of the business days in the next three months, calculating the cumulative total of such daily net cash flows as at the business day in question;
(1) A simplified ILAS BIPRU firm may only include in its liquid assets buffer eligible government and designated multilateral development bank debt securities up to the value of the buffer securities restriction.(2) For the purpose of calculating the buffer securities restriction, a firm must:(a) calculate its daily net flow in government and designated multilateral development bank debt securities eligible as classes of assets for inclusion in the firm's liquid assets buffer;(b)
(1) Subject to (3), a simplified ILAS BIPRU firm that has assets or liabilities denominated in either or both euros and United States dollars must carry out separate calculations under BIPRU 12.6.9Rin relation to its positions in each of those currencies, in addition to that which it carries out in relation to its sterling positions (if any).(2) A firm to which (1) applies must ensure that, for the purpose of meeting the simplified buffer requirement, it holds in its liquid assets
The rules in BIPRU 12.7 set out the sorts of assets that are eligible for the liquid assets buffer of an ILAS BIPRU firm. Every ILAS BIPRU firm may include in its buffer reserves in the form of sight deposits at a central bank and high quality debt securities issued by governments and designated multilateral development banks subject to the eligibility rules in BIPRU 12.7. BIPRU 12.7 provides that a simplified ILAS BIPRU firm may also include in its buffer investments in a designated
The FSA will:(1) expect the issuer to demonstrate that it has in place appropriate systems, controls, procedures and policies, including in relation to risk management, underwriting, arrears and valuation; (2) expect the issuer to demonstrate that the cash-flows generated by the assets would be sufficient to meet the payments due in a timely manner including under conditions of economic stress and in the event of the failure of the issuer;(3) take account of any over collateralisation
(1) The credit risk of an asset is the risk of loss if another party fails to perform its obligations or fails to perform them in a timely fashion.(2) Where, for example, the asset pool includes residential mortgages the relevant factors which the FSA may consider include: (a) whether the asset pool contains (or could contain) loans made to individuals who have been made bankrupt or have had court judgments made against them;(b) the extent to which the asset pool contains (or
Concentration risk is the risk of loss from exposures being limited in number or variety. The relevant factors the FSA may consider include:(1) the level of granularity of the asset pool (i.e. what is the number and size distribution of assets in the pool); (2) whether the borrowers or collateral is unduly concentrated in a particular industry, sector, or geographical region.
Market risk is the risk that arises from fluctuations in the values of, or income from, assets or in interest or exchange rates. The relevant factors the FSA may consider include whether the hedging agreements (defined in Regulation 1(2) of the RCB Regulations as agreements entered into or assets held as protection against possible financial loss) adequately protect against any adverse mismatched cash-flows due to changes in market variables.
(1) The FSA expects legal advice to deal adequately with at least the following matters in relation to the actual or proposed arrangements:(a) whether the transfer of the assets to the owner would be upheld in the event of liquidation or administration, or similar collective insolvency proceedings, of the issuer or the transferor (if different from the issuer);(b) the risk of the transfer of an asset to the owner being re-characterised as the creation of a security interest;(c)
(1) The FSA expects the report from the accountants to address at least the following matters:(a) that the level of over collateralisation meets the limits set out in the covered bond arrangements which are designed to ensure compliance with the requirement that the asset pool is capable of covering claims attaching to the bond in Regulation 17 (requirements on issuer in relation to the asset pool) of the RCB Regulations; and(b) that appropriate due diligence procedures (which
1Assets which would be eligible for inclusion in a liquidity buffer under BIPRU 12.7 can be liquid assets for the purposes of limb (a) of the definition of liquid assets in Regulation 1(2) of the RCB Regulations. The FSA will also expect that liquid assets which consist of deposits should be held in the same currency or currencies as the regulated covered bonds issued by the issuer.
INSPRU 3.1 addresses the impact of market risk on insurance business in the ways set out below:(1) Any firm that carries on long-term insurance business which is a regulatory basis only life firm2must comply with the resilience capital requirement. This requires the firm to hold capital to cover market risk. The resilience capital requirement is dealt with in INSPRU 3.1.9 G to INSPRU 3.1.26 R.(2) For a firm that carries on long-term insurance business, the assets that it must
Where the assets of a firm invested in a significant territory of a kind referred to in INSPRU 3.1.23R (1), INSPRU 3.1.23R (2) or INSPRU 3.1.23R (3)(a) represent less than 0.5% of the firm'slong-term insurance assets (excluding assets held to cover index-linked liabilities or property-linked liabilities), measured by market value, the firm may assume for those assets the market risk scenario for assets of that kind invested in the United Kingdom set out in INSPRU 3.1.16 R instead
A firm must cover its index-linked liabilities with:(1) either:(a) the assets which represent that index; or(b) assets of appropriate security and marketability which correspond, as closely as possible, to the assets which are comprised in, or which form, the index or other reference of value to which those liabilities are linked; or(2) a portfolio of assets whose value or yield is reasonably expected to correspond closely with the index-linked liability; or(3) an index-linked
If a firm has incurred a policy liability which cannot be exactly matched by appropriate assets (for example the Limited Price Index (LPI)), the firm should seek to match assets that at least cover the liabilities. For example, an LPI limited to 5% per annum may be matched by an RPI bond or a fixed interest investment matching cash flows increasing at 5% per annum compound. Orders made by the Department for Work and Pensions under section 148 of the Social Security Administration
In selecting the appropriate cover, the firm should ensure that both credit risk, and the risk that the value or yield in the assets will not, in all circumstances, match fluctuations in the relevant index, are within acceptable limits. Rules and guidance relating to credit risk are set out in INSPRU 2.1.
4Where liabilities are linked to orders made under section 148 of the Social Security Administration Act 1992, firms are required by COBS 21.3.5R to notify their supervisorsbefore effecting any such business and to explain how the risks associated with this business will be safely managed. This requirement does not apply in respect of liabilities for which a limited revaluation premium has been paid to the Department for Work and Pensions so that the liability for revaluation,
A pure reinsurer must invest its assets in accordance with the following requirements:(1) the assets must take account of the type of business carried out by the firm, in particular the nature, amount and duration of expected claims payments, in such a way as to secure the sufficiency, liquidity, security, quality, profitability and matching of its investments;(2) the firm must ensure that the assets are diversified and adequately spread and allow the firm to respond adequately
A class 1 circular must also include the following information:(1) the information given in the notification (see LR 10.4.1R);(2) the information required by LR 13 Annex 1;(3) the information required by LR 13.5 (if applicable); and(4) a declaration by the issuer and2 its directors in the following form (with appropriate modifications):"The [issuer] and the2 directors of [the issuer2], whose names appear on page [ ], accept responsibility for the information contained in this
The FSA may modify the information requirements in LR 13.4.6 R if it considers that the information set out would not provide significant additional information. In those circumstances the FSA would generally require only the following information, provided it is presented in accordance with reporting standards acceptable to the FSA:33(1) details of mineral resources, and where applicable reserves (presented separately) and exploration results or prospects;3(2) anticipated mine
If a class 1 transaction relates to the acquisition of a scientific research based company or related assets, the class 1 circular must contain an explanation of the transaction's impact on the acquirer's business plan and the information set out in Section 1c of Part III (Scientific research based companies) 1of the ESMA recommendations.313
2A firm must distinguish between pledged and unencumbered assets that are available at all times, in particular during emergency situations. A firm must also take into account the legal entity in which assets reside, the country where assets are legally recorded either in a register or in an account as well as their eligibility and must monitor how assets can be mobilised in a timely manner.[Note: annex V paragraph 16 of the Banking Consolidation Directive]
For the purposes of BIPRU 12.3.22R, a firm must, in relation to all currencies in which it has significant positions and all jurisdictions in which it carries on significant business activities, ensure that it:(1) can calculate all of its collateral positions, including assets currently provided as collateral, relative to the total amount of security required;(2) can calculate the amount of unencumbered assets available to it to be provided as collateral;(3) can mobilise collateral
For the purposes of BIPRU 12.3.23R (8) and (9), a firm should take into account the impact of the stresses that it conducts under BIPRU 12.4.1R on the requirements which may be imposed on the provision of its assets as collateral (for example, haircuts) and also the availability of funds from private counterparties during such periods of stress.
(1) A firm should ensure that its arrangements for the management of liquidity risk:(a) enable it to monitor shifts between intra-day and overnight or term collateral usage;(b) enable it to appropriately adjust its calculation of available collateral to account for assets that are part of a tied hedge;(c) include adequate consideration of the potential for uncertainty around, or disruption to, intra-day asset flows; and(d) take into account the potential for additional collateral
A firm must develop methodologies for the identification, measurement, management and monitoring of funding positions. Those methodologies must include the current and projected material cash-flows in and arising from assets, liabilities, off-balance-sheet items, including contingent liabilities and the possible impact of reputational risk.22[Note: annex V paragraph 152of the Banking Consolidation Directive]
(1) This paragraph provides an outline of the initial steps to be taken when using the scenario matrix approach.(2) A value for an option should be obtained using the firm'soptions valuation model.(3) The inputs into the options valuation model for implied volatility of the underlying asset and the price of the underlying asset should then be altered so that a new value for the option is obtained (details of the amount by which the implied volatility and the price of the underlying
The alteration to the implied volatility (known as the implied volatility shift) referred to in BIPRU 7.9.29G (3) may be a proportional shift. The size of the shift depends on the remaining life of the option and the asset class of the underlying. The table in BIPRU 7.9.32G sets out the shifts that should be applied where a proportional shift is used. Alternatively, a firm may use a single shift across all maturities or use an absolute rather than a proportional implied volatility
Table: proportional implied volatility shifts
This table belongs to BIPRU 7.9.30G
Remaining life of option |
Proportional shift |
|
Interest rates and CIUs |
||
≤ 1 month |
30% |
30% |
> 1 ≤ 3 months |
20% |
20% |
> 3 ≤ 6 months |
15% |
15% |
> 6 ≤ 9 months |
12% |
12% |
> 9 ≤ 12 months |
9% |
9% |
> 1 ≤ 2 years |
6% |
9% |
> 2 ≤ 4 years |
4.5% |
9% |
> 4 years |
3% |
9% |
Table: underlying price/rate shifts
This table belongs to BIPRU 7.9.33G
Underlying asset class |
Shift |
±8% |
|
±8% |
|
±15%, (but a firm may use the percentages applicable under the commodity extended maturity ladder approach if it would qualify under BIPRU 7.4 (Commodity PRR) to use that approach). |
|
Interest rates |
±100bp (but a firm may use the sliding scale of shifts by maturity as applicable to the interest rate duration method). |
±32%, (but a firm may use the percentages applicable to the underlyings if the firm applies one of the CIU look through methods under BIPRU 7.7 (Position risk requirements for collective investment undertakings)). |
(1) A different scenario matrix should be set up for each underlying asset type in accordance with this paragraph.(2) For equities (including single equities, baskets and indices) there should be a separate matrix for each national market or non-decomposed basket or non-decomposed multi-national index.(3) For foreign currency products there should be a separate matrix for each currency pair where appropriate.(4) For commodity products there should be a separate matrix for each
(1) Where the credit risk mitigation used relies on the right of a firm to liquidate or retain assets, eligibility depends upon whether risk weighted exposure amounts, and, as relevant, expected loss amounts, are calculated under the standardised approach or the IRB approach.(2) Eligibility further depends upon whether the financial collateral simple method is used or the financial collateral comprehensive method.(3) In relation to repurchase transactions and securities or commodities
(1) Units in CIUs may be recognised as eligible collateral if the following conditions are satisfied:(a) they have a daily public price quote;4(b) the CIU is limited to investing in instruments that are eligible for recognition under BIPRU 5.4.2 R to BIPRU 5.4.5 R; and4(c) 4if the CIU is not limited to investing in instruments that are eligible for recognition under BIPRU 5.4.2 R to BIPRU 5.4.5 R, units may be recognised with the value of the eligible assets as collateral under
(1) In addition to the collateral set out in BIPRU 5.4.2 R to BIPRU 5.4.7 R, where a firm uses the financial collateral comprehensive method, the following financial items may be recognised as eligible collateral:(a) equities or convertible bonds not included in a main index but traded on a recognised investment exchange or a designated investment exchange;(b) units in CIUs if the following conditions are met:(i) they have a daily public price quote; and(ii) the CIU is limited
The operational requirements referred to in BIPRU 5.4.9 R (3) are as follows:(1) the collateral arrangements must be properly documented, with a clear and robust procedure for the timely liquidation of collateral;(2) a firm must employ robust procedures and processes to control risks arising from the use of collateral – including risks of failed or reduced credit protection, valuation risks, risks associated with the termination of the credit protection, concentration risk arising
For eligible units in CIUs the volatility adjustment is the weighted average volatility adjustments that would apply, having regard to the liquidation period of the transaction as specified in BIPRU 5.4.39 R, to the assets in which the fund has invested. If the assets in which the fund has invested are not known to the firm, the volatility adjustment is the highest volatility adjustment that would apply to any of the assets in which the fund has the right to invest.[Note:BCD Annex
A firm must take into account the illiquidity of lower-quality assets. The liquidation period must be adjusted upwards in cases where there is doubt concerning the liquidity of the collateral. A firm must also identify where historical data may understate potential volatility, e.g. a pegged currency. Such cases must be dealt with by means of stress scenario assessments3.[Note:BCD Annex VIII Part 3 point 50]3
1If the issuer or the owner (as the case may be) proposes to add or remove assets to or from the asset pool which change the level of over collateralisation by 5% or more, it must notify the FSA using the form set out in RCB 3 Annex 2 D (asset notification form) at least 5 business days prior to the proposed transfer, giving expected details of the size and composition of the transfer.
If a social housing firm is carrying on home financing1or home finance administration1(and no other regulated activity), its net tangible assets must be greater than zero. However, if it carries on insurance mediation activity or home finance mediation activity1, there is no special provision and the capital resources requirement for firms carrying on designated investment business or mediation activities only applies to it as appropriate. 11111
(1) The capital resources requirement for a firm carrying on home financing, 1or home financing1and home finance administration1 (and no other regulated activity) is the higher of:111111(a) £100,000; and(b) 1% of:(i) its total assets plus total undrawn commitments and unreleased amounts under the home reversion plan1; less:(ii) excluded loans or amounts 1plus intangible assets (see Note 1 in the table in MIPRU 4.4.4 R).(2) Undrawn commitments and unreleased amounts 1means the
When calculating total assets, the firm may exclude a loan or plan 1which has been transferred to a third party only if it meets the following conditions:(1) the first condition is that the loan or the plan 1has been transferred in a legally effective manner by:(a) novation; or(b) legal or equitable assignment; or(c) sub-participation; or(d) declaration of trust; and(2) the second condition is that the home finance provider1:1(a) retains no material economic interest in the loan
BIPRU 12.2 provides that an ILAS BIPRU firm must ensure that its liquidity resources contain an adequate buffer of high quality, unencumbered assets. BIPRU 12.7 describes in more detail the nature of the assets that are eligible for inclusion in that buffer. The rules in this section provide that some types of assets are eligible for use only by a simplified ILAS BIPRU firm.
In deciding on the precise composition of its liquid assets buffer, a firm should ensure that it tailors the contents of the buffer to the needs of its business and the liquidity risk that it faces. In particular, a firm should ensure that it holds assets in its buffer which can be realised with the speed necessary to meet its liabilities as they fall due. In doing so, a firm should have regard to the currencies in which its liabilities are denominated and should take into account
The FSA regards as encumbered any asset which the firm in question has provided as collateral. Therefore, where assets have been used as collateral in this way (for example, in a repo), they should not be included in the firms liquid assets buffer. However, any assets provided by the firm to a central bank as collateral which meet the requirements in BIPRU 12.7.9A R will be recognised as unencumbered by the FSA for the purposes of BIPRU 12.7.9R (1). For the avoidance of doubt,
(1) For the purpose of BIPRU 12.7.9R (3), a firm1 must periodically realise a proportion of the assets in its liquid assets buffer through repo or outright sale to the market.1(2) [deleted]11(3) A firm must ensure that in carrying out such periodic realisation:(a) it does so without reference to the firm's day-to-day liquidity needs;(b) it realises in varying amounts the assets in its liquid assets buffer;(c) the cumulative effect of its periodic realisation over any twelve month
In addition to the requirements in LR 9.8 (Annual financial report), a closed-ended investment fund must include in its annual financial report:(1) a statement (including a quantitative analysis) explaining how it has invested its assets with a view to spreading investment risk in accordance with its published investment policy; (2) a statement, set out in a prominent position, as to whether in the opinion of the directors, the continuing appointment of the investment manager
The summary described in LR 15.6.3 R must include:(1) the total value of properties held at the year end;(2) totals of the cost of properties acquired;(3) the net book value of properties disposed of during the year; and(4) an indication of the geographical location and type of properties held at the year end.
A closed-ended investment fund must notify to 1a RIS within five business days of the end of each quarter a list of all investments in other listedclosed-ended investment funds, as at the last business day of that quarter, which themselves do not have stated investment policies to invest no more than 15% of their total assets in other listedclosed-ended investment funds.11
LR 10 Annex 1 is modified as follows in relation to acquisitions or disposals of property by a listedproperty company:(1) for the purposes of paragraph 2R(1) (the gross assets test), the assets test is calculated by dividing the transaction consideration by the gross assets of the listedproperty company and paragraphs 2R(5) and 2R(6) do not apply;(2) for the purposes of paragraph 2R(1) (the gross assets test), if the transaction is an acquisition of land to be developed, the assets
LR 10 does not apply to the acquisition or disposal by a listedproperty company of a property in the ordinary course of business which:(1) for an acquisition, will be classified as a current asset in the company's published accounts; or(2) for a disposal, was so classified in the company's published accounts.
If a CRD implementation measure in another EEA State implements the discretion in point 53 of Part 1 of Annex VI of the Banking Consolidation Directive, a firm may apply the same treatment as that CRD implementation measure to exposures related to property leasing transactions concerning offices or other commercial premises situated in that EEA State and governed by statutory provisions whereby the lessor retains full ownership of the rented assets until the tenant exercises his
(1) Covered bonds means covered bonds as defined in paragraph (1) of the definition in the glossary (Definition based on Article 22(4) of the UCITS Directive) and collateralised by any of the following eligible assets:(a) exposures to or guaranteed by central governments, central bank, public sector entities, regional governments and local authorities in the EEA;(b) (i) exposures to or guaranteed by non-EEA central governments, non-EEAcentral banks, multilateral development banks,
Where BIPRU 3.4.116 R does not apply, a firm may determine the risk weight for a CIU as set out in BIPRU 3.4.123 R to BIPRU 3.4.125 R, if the following eligibility criteria are met:(1) one of the following conditions is satisfied:(a) the CIU is managed by a company which is subject to supervision in an EEA State; or(b) the following conditions are satisfied:(i) the CIU is managed by a company which is subject to supervision that is equivalent to that laid down in EU5 law; and5(ii)
(1) A firm may take into account factors other than those identified in the overall Pillar 2 rule when it assesses the level of capital it wishes to hold. These factors might include external rating goals, market reputation and its strategic goals. However, a firm should be able to distinguish, for the purpose of its dialogue with the FSA, between capital it holds in order to comply with the overall financial adequacy rule, capital that it holds as a capital planning buffer and
A firm should assess its exposure to risks transferred through the securitisation of assets should those transfers fail for whatever reason. A firm should consider the effect on its financial position of a securitisation arrangement failing to operate as anticipated or of the values and risks transferred not emerging as expected.
A firm should assess, and monitor, in detail its exposure to sectoral, geographic, liability and asset concentrations. The FSA considers that concentrations in these areas increase a firm's exposure to credit risk. Where a firm identifies such concentrations it should consider the adequacy of its CRR.
Some further areas to consider in developing the liquidity risk scenario might include:(1) any mismatching between expected asset and liability cash flows;(2) the inability to sell assets quickly;(3) the extent to which a firm's assets have been pledged; and(4) the possible need to reduce large asset positions at different levels of market liquidity and the related potential costs and timing constraints.
Where a securities firm deals in illiquid securities (for example, unlisted securities or securities listed on illiquid markets), or holds illiquid assets, potentially large losses can arise from trades that have failed to settle or because of large unrealised market losses. A securities firm may therefore consider the impact of liquidity risk on its exposure to:(1) credit risk; and(2) market risk.
6Alternative finance investment bonds (defined in article 77A of the Regulated Activities Order and referred to in the Handbook as alternative debentures) are a form of Sharia compliant bond (known as sukuk in the plural or sakk in the singular) which are intended to be regulated in an equivalent manner to conventional debt securities, where appropriate. Sukuk arrangements allow assets to be held for the benefit of investors in certificates issued by a company. The benefits
The arrangements which grant rights under an alternative debenture arise where:(1) the arrangements provide for a person (the bond-holder) to pay a sum of money (the capital) to another (the bond-issuer);(2) the arrangements identify assets, or a class of assets, which the bond-issuer will acquire for the purpose of generating income or gains directly or indirectly (the bond assets);(3) the arrangements specify a period at the end of which they cease to have effect (the bond term);(4)
Different types of alternative debentures are permitted so that, for example:(1) the assets of the arrangement may be acquired before or after it commences;(2) the bond-holder may (but need not) be entitled under the arrangements to terminate them, or participate in terminating them before the end of the bond term;(3) the return may be fixed, floating or determined in some other way;(4) the amount of the redemption payment may (but need not) be subject to reduction in the event
- (1)
The main provision within the definition of alternative debenture arrangements that seeks to ensure that only instruments that display the characteristics of a debt security can be alternative debentures is set out at PERG 2.6.11CG (5). It provides that the amount of additional payments under the arrangements must not exceed an amount which would, at the time the bond is issued, be a reasonable commercial return on a loan of capital. Where the return is not fixed at the outset, it is the maximum possible amount of the additional payments that must be considered in deciding this question. The following example demonstrates how this condition should be approached.
- additional payments under the arrangements would exceed a reasonable commercial return on a loan of the capital.
Further, where the return is not fixed at the outset, it is the maximum possible amount of the additional payments that must be considered. Here, the issue terms of the sukuk impose no upper limit on the amount of the periodic distributions: a sakk holder subscribing 1,000 may, in a year, get back 200 or 2,000 or nothing depending on the rental market. The maximum potential return is clearly in excess of a reasonable commercial return on a loan of 1,000; and
- the arrangements have not been admitted to an official list or admitted to trading on a regulated market or recognised investment exchange (see PERG 2.6.11CG (6)).
- (2)
If, in the above example, investors returns were capped at 500 per sakk per year, then this is the amount that must be considered in deciding whether the return exceeds a reasonable commercial return on a loan, even where the amounts actually received turn out to be far lower.
- (3)
In applying the reasonable commercial return test, the sakk should be compared to a hypothetical loan to the issuer on similar terms and carrying similar risks. For example, a conventional security convertible into shares will normally carry a lower rate of interest because the conversion right has a value. The return on an exchangeable or convertible sakk should be measured against the return on an equivalent exchangeable or convertible debt security.
- (4)
The risk to investors in sukuk may vary slightly from that of a conventional bond in some instances. This may be due to the fact that sukuk holders only have recourse to the bond assets or some other structural feature which results in the risk profile being higher. In such instances it may be justifiable for the rate of return to be slightly higher than that of a conventional loan.
- (5)
As with any financial instrument, the pricing of sukuk will depend on the issuers view of the market at the time of issue and reasonable commercial return may vary depending on the issuer and the economic circumstances prevalent at the time of issue.
Example ABC Ltd is a property development company. It wishes to increase its portfolio on a short-term basis. It issues 5-year sukuk to investors and uses the proceeds to buy the head lease of a commercial property. The rental income from the lease is distributed to investors in proportion to their holdings without a cap on the level of return. After 5 years, the head lease is sold on at a profit and the proceeds shared between investors. In this example, the investors participate directly in the success or failure of the underlying property business. The sakk is not really in the nature of a debt instrument. It is unlikely to be an alternative debenture as: |