Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50

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SUP 5.4.6GRP
The skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G. The FSA will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G the skilled person who will make the report. The Act requires that the skilled person be nominated or approved by the FSA:(1) if the FSA decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the report report, it will notify the person in SUP 5.2.1 G accordingly; and (2) alternatively, if the FSA is content to approve a skilled person selected
BIPRU 7.4.23RRP
If a firm intends to rely on the approach in BIPRU 7.4.22R(1)(b):(1) it must notify the FSA in writing at least 20 business days prior to the date the firm starts relying on it; and(2) the firm must, as part of the notification under (1), provide to the FSA the analysis of price movements on which it relies.
PR 1.1.1RRP
(1) 1PR 2, PR 3, PR 4.2, PR 5.1, PR 5.3.1 UK to PR 5.3.3 G and PR 5.5 only apply (subject to paragraph (2)) in relation to:(a) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, in respect of which section 85 of the Act applies (other than an exempt offer under section 86 of the Act) and in relation to which the United Kingdom is the Home State;(b) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, where under section 87 of the
COLL 4.5.14RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager must, within four months after the end of each annual accounting period and two months after the end of each half-yearly accounting period respectively, make available and publish the long reports2 prepared in accordance with COLL 4.5.7R (1) to (3)2 (Contents of the annual long report) and COLL 4.5.8R (1) to (2)2 (Contents of the half-yearly long report).22(2) The reports referred to in (1) must:(a) be supplied free of charge to any person on request2;2(b)
LR 8.2.1RRP
A company with, or applying for, a premium listing of its equity shares5 must appoint a sponsor on each occasion that it:4(1) is required to submit any of the following documents to the FSA in connection with6 an application for admission of equity shares5 to premium listing6:66(a) a prospectus or equivalent document1; or6(b) a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or6(c) a summary document as required by PR 1.2.3R (8); or6(d) listing particulars referred to
DEPP 6.5A.3GRP
(1) The FSA may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the breach. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the breach:(a) the conduct of the firm in bringing (or failing
PRIN 3.4.5RRP
Where Principle 11 refers to regulators, this means, in addition to the FSA, other regulators with recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated activities, whether in the United Kingdom or abroad.
SUP 15.4.1RRP
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FSA within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic responsibility
DISP 2.6.4RRP
The Voluntary Jurisdiction covers only complaints about the activities of a VJ participant carried on from an establishment:519(1) in the United Kingdom; or(2) elsewhere in the EEA if the following conditions are met:(a) the activity is directed wholly or partly at the United Kingdom (or part of it);(b) contracts governing the activity are (or, in the case of a potential customer, would have been) made under the law of England and Wales, Scotland or Northern Ireland; and(c) the
FIT 1.2.4AGRP
2Under Article 5(1)(d) of the MiFID Implementing Directive and Article 31 and 32 of MiFID, the requirement to employ personnel with the knowledge, skills and expertise necessary for the discharge of the responsibilities allocated to them is reserved to the firm'sHome State. Therefore, in assessing the fitness and propriety of a person to perform a controlled function solely in relation to the MiFID business of an incoming EEA firm, the FSA will not have regard to that person's
SUP 13.8.1AGRP
4The effect of SUP 13.8.1 R (1) is that a firm should submit any form, notice or application under SUP 13.8.1 R (1) in the following ways:(1) A UK firm, other than a credit union, should submit it online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.(2) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for online submission are restored, a firm should submit it in the way set out in SUP 13.5.3
COLL 2.1.5GRP
1An EEA UCITS management company that proposes to act as the manager of an AUT or the ACD of an ICVC that is a UCITS scheme, should be aware that it is required under paragraph 15A(1) of Schedule 3 to the Act to apply to the FSA for approval to do so. The form that the firm must use for this purpose is set out in SUP 13A Annex 3 R (EEA UCITS management companies: application for approval to manage a UCITS scheme established in the United Kingdom). In addition, those firms are
REC 5.2.14GRP

Information and supporting documentation (see REC 5.2.4 G).

(1)

Details of the applicant's constitution, structure and ownership, including its memorandum and articles of association (or similar or analogous documents ) and any agreements between the applicant, its owners or other persons relating to its constitution or governance (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1. An applicant for RAP status must provide details of the relationship between the governance arrangements in place for the UK RIE and the RAP.3

(2)

Details of all business to be conducted by the applicant, whether or not a regulated activity (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(3)

Details of the facilities which the applicant plans to operate, including details of the trading platform or (for an RAP) auction platform,3 settlement arrangements, clearing services and custody services which it plans to supply. An applicant for RAP status must provide details on the relationship between the auction platform and any secondary market in emissions auction products4 which it operates or plans to operate.3

4

(4)

Copies of the last three annual reports and accounts and, for the current financial year, quarterly management accounts.

(5)

Details of its business plan for the first three years of operation as a UK recognised body (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(6)

A full organisation chart and a list of the posts to be held by key individuals (with details of the duties and responsibilities) and the names of the persons proposed for these appointments when these names are available (if not contained in the information listed in REC 5.2.3A G)1.

(7)

Details of its auditors, bankers, solicitors and any persons providing corporate finance advice or similar services (such as reporting accountants) to the applicant.

(8)

Details of any relevant functions to be outsourced or delegated, with copies of relevant agreements.

(9)

Details of information technology systems and of arrangements for their supply, management, maintenance and upgrading, and security.

(10)

Details of all plans to minimise disruption to operation of its facilities in the event of the failure of its information technology systems.

(11)

Details of internal systems for financial control, arrangements for risk management and insurance arrangements to cover operational and other risks.

(12)

Details of its arrangements for managing any counterparty risks, including details of margining systems, guarantee funds and insurance arrangements.

(13)

Details of internal arrangements to safeguard confidential or privileged information and for handling conflicts of interest.

(14)

Details of arrangements for complying with the notification rules and other requirements to supply information to the FSA.

(15)

Details of the arrangements to be made for monitoring and enforcing compliance with its rules and with its clearing, settlement and default arrangements.

(16)

A summary of the legal due diligence carried out in relation to ascertaining the enforceability of its rules (including default rules)and arrangements for margin against any of its members based outside the United Kingdom, and the results and conclusions reached.

(17)

Details of the procedures to be followed for declaring a member in default, and for taking action after that event to close out positions, protect the interests of other members and enforce its default rules.

(18)

Details of membership selection criteria, rules and procedures, including (for an RAP) details of how the rules of the UK RIE will change in order to reflect RAP status.3

(19)

Details of arrangements for recording transactions effected by, or cleared through, its facilities.

(20)

Details of arrangements for detecting financial crime and market abuse , including arrangements for complying with money laundering law.

(21)

Details of criteria, rules and arrangements for selecting specified investments to be admitted to trading on (or cleared by) an RIE, or to be cleared by an RCH and, where relevant, details of how information regarding specified investments will be disseminated to users of its facilities.

(22)

Details of arrangements for cooperating with the FSA and other appropriate authorities, including draft memoranda of understanding or letters.

(23)

Details of the procedures and arrangements for making and amending rules, including arrangements for consulting on rule changes.

(24)

Details of disciplinary and appeal procedures, and of the arrangements for investigating complaints.
SUP 2.3.1GRP
The FSA uses various methods of information gathering on its own initiative which require the cooperation of firms:(1) Visits may be made by representatives or appointees of the FSA. These visits may be made on a regular basis, on a sample basis, for special purposes such as theme visits (looking at a particular issue across a range of firms), or when the FSA has a particular reason for visiting a firm. Appointees of the FSA may include persons who are not FSA staff, but who have
DEPP 6.5C.3GRP
(1) The FSA may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the market abuse. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the market abuse:(a) the conduct of the individual in
PR 2.1.6RRP
The summary must be in the language in which the prospectus was originally drawn up. [Note: article 19.2 PD]Note: PR 4.1 sets out rules about the language in which the prospectus must be drawn up.Note: Article 19.2 of the prospectus directive also allows the competent authority of a Host State to require that the summary be translated into its official language(s). The FSA as competent authority of a Host State requires a summary to be translated into English under PR 4.1.6 R
REC 6A.2.2GRP
A requirement is relevant if it is imposed:(1) by the operator's Home State regulator in the implementation of MiFID or any EU2 legislation made under MiFID;2(2) by provision implementing MiFID, or any EU2 legislation made under it, in the operator's Home State; or2(3) by any directly applicable EU2 regulation made under MiFID.2
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 213 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 150 of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 150(2) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 344