Related provisions for PERG 6.4.3
321 - 340 of 682 items.
(1) A firm may arrange for records to be kept in such form as it chooses, provided the record is readily accessible for inspection by the FSA.(2) Where a firm chooses to maintain records in electronic form, it should take reasonable steps to ensure that:(a) the electronic record accurately reflects the original information; and (b) the electronic record has not been subject to unauthorised or accidental alteration.
In an exceptionally urgent case the decision to give a supervisory notice may be taken by a member of the FSA's executive of at least director of division level if:(1) FSA staff consider that the action should be taken before a recommendation to the Chairman or a Deputy Chairman of the RDC can be made; and(2) an urgent decision on the proposed action is necessary to protect the interests of consumers.
In the circumstances described in DEPP 3.4.3 G, the FSA considers that it may be necessary for an FSA director of division to take the decision to give the supervisory notice even if he has been involved in establishing the evidence on which the decision is based, as permitted by section 395(3) of the Act. Where practicable, however, FSA staff will seek to ensure that the FSA director has not been so involved.
If a firm decides to cease to effect new contracts of insurance, it must, within 28 days of that decision, submit a run-off plan to the FSA including: (1) a scheme of operations; and (2) an explanation of how, or to what extent, all liabilities to policyholders (including, where relevant, liabilities which arise from the regulatory duty to treat customers fairly in setting discretionary benefits) will be met in full as they fall due.
Under Principle 11, the FSA normally expects to be notified by a firm when it decides to cease effecting new contracts of insurance in respect of one or more classes of contract of insurance (see SUP 15.3.8 G). At the same time, the FSA would normally expect the firm to discuss with it the need for the firm to apply to vary its permission (see SUP 6.2.6 G and SUP 6.2.7 G) and, if appropriate, to submit a scheme of operations in accordance with SUP App 2.8.1 R.
The 'assumption of risk' by the provider is an important descriptive feature of all contracts of insurance. The 'assumption of risk' has the meaning in (1) and (3), derived from the case law in (2) and (4) below. The application of the 'assumption of risk' concept is illustrated in PERG 6.7.2 G (Example 2: disaster recovery business).(1) Case law establishes that the provider's obligation under a contract of insurance is an enforceable obligation to respond (usually, by providing
Contracts, under which the amount and timing of the payments made by the recipient make it reasonable to conclude that there is a genuine pre-payment for services to be rendered in response to a future contingency, are unlikely to be regarded as insurance. In general, the FSA expects that this requirement will be satisfied where there is a commercially reasonable and objectively justifiable relationship between the amount of the payment and the cost of providing the contract
Under most commercial contracts with a customer, a provider will assume more than one obligation. Some of these may be insurance obligations, others may not. The FSA will apply the principles in PERG 6.5.4 G, in the way described in (1) to (3) to determine whether the contract is a contract of insurance.(1) If a provider undertakes an identifiable and distinct obligation that is, in substance an insurance obligation as described in PERG 6.5.4 G, then, other things being equal,
For the purposes of LR 10.2.4R (1), the FSA considers the following indemnities not to be exceptional:(1) those customarily given in connection with sale and purchase agreements;(2) those customarily given to underwriters or placing agents in an underwriting or placing agreement;(3) those given to advisers against liabilities to third parties arising out of providing advisory services; and(4) any other indemnity that is specifically permitted to be given to a director or auditor
The FSA may modify these rules to require the aggregation of transactions in circumstances other than those specified in LR 10.2.10 R.Note: If an issuer is proposing to enter into a transaction that could be a Class 1 transaction or reverse takeover it is required under LR 8 to obtain the guidance of a sponsor to assess the potential application of LR 10.
If the Part IV permission of a firm contains a requirement obliging it to comply with this rule with respect to a third-country banking and investment group of which it is a member, it must comply, with respect to that third-country banking and investment group, with the rules in Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 2, as adjusted by Part 3 of that annex.
Upon request, an issuer or other person must be able to communicate to the FSA, in relation to any disclosure of regulated information:(1) the name of the person who communicated the regulated information to the RIS;(2) the security validation details;(3) the time and date on which the regulated information was communicated to the RIS;(4) the medium in which the regulated information was communicated; and(5) details of any embargo placed by the issuer on the regulated information,
If, notwithstanding the steps taken by a firm to comply with MCOB 1.6.3 R, it transpires that a mortgage which the firm has treated as unregulated is in fact a regulated mortgage contract, the firm must as soon as practicable after the correct status of the mortgage has been established:(1) contact the customer and provide him with the following information in a durable medium:(a) a statement that the mortgage contract is a regulated mortgage contract subject to FSA regulation,
(1) MCOB 1.6.4 R(2) means, for example, that if a firm discovered immediately after completion that a loan was a regulated mortgage contract, the firm would be required to comply with MCOB 7.4 (Disclosure at the start of the contract).(2) Although MCOB 1.6.4 R recognises that firms may become aware that a mortgage is a regulated mortgage contract at a late stage, the FSA expects this to be an extremely rare occurrence. It could arise, for example, if a firm has acted on the understanding,
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FSA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application of
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in the Host State must ensure that:(a) its instrument constituting the scheme, its prospectus and, where appropriate, its latest annual report and any subsequent half-yearly report; and(b) its key investor information document;together with their translations (wherever necessary), are kept up to date.(2) The authorised fund manager must notify any amendments to the documents referred to in (1) to
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FSA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made
(1) The directors (or director) of an ICVC must take all practicable steps to ensure the ICVC has at all times as its ACD a person who is qualified to act as ACD.(2) If the ICVC ceases to have any director, the depositary must exercise its powers, under the OEIC Regulations, to appoint a person to be an ACD of the ICVC.(3) For an ICVC that holds annual general meetings under the OEIC Regulations, the1 appointment of an ACD (other than the first ACD), under (1) or (2), must terminate
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FSA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
The FSA would expect a firm'sconflicts of interest policy to provide
for investment research to be
published or distributed to its clients in
an appropriate manner. For example, the FSA considers it will be:(1) appropriate for a firm to take reasonable steps to ensure that
its investment research is published
or distributed only through its usual distribution
channels; and(2) inappropriate for an employee (whether or not a financial
analyst) to communicate the substance of any
The FSA would expect a firm to
consider whether or not other business activities of the firm could
create the reasonable perception that its investment
research may not be an impartial analysis of the market in,
or the value or prospects of, a financial
instrument. A firm would
therefore be expected to consider whether its conflicts
of interest policy should contain any restrictions on the timing
of the publication of investment research.
For example, a firm might consider
whether
The FSA considers that the significant
conflicts of interest which could arise are likely to mean it is inappropriate
for a financial analyst or
other relevant person to prepare investment research which is intended firstly
for internal use for the firm's
own advantage, and then for later publication to its clients (in
circumstances in which it might reasonably be expected to have a material
influence on its clients' investment
decisions).
4An EEA firm that has exercised an EEA right under the auction regulation to establish a branch in the United Kingdom must notify the FSA by email to emissionstrading@fsa.gov.uk when it ceases to carry on regulated activities through a branch passport in the United Kingdom or whenever possible thereafter.
4 The sole purpose of the notification in SUP 14.6.3A R is to inform the FSA that it may discontinue its supervision of the UK branch of the incoming EEA firm's compliance with the applicable provisions. The applicable provisions that apply to that branch are set out in SUP 13A Annex 1 (Application of the Handbook to Incoming EEA Firms).
In a rights issue, the FSA may list the equity securities6 at the same time as they 6are admitted to trading in nil paid form. On the equity securities6 being paid up and the allotment becoming unconditional, the listing will continue without any need for a further application to list fully paid securities.
8On each occasion that the listed company plans to use an on-screen intra-day price it should discuss the source of the price in advance with the FSA. The FSA may be satisfied that there is sufficient justification for its use if the alternative market has an appropriate level of liquidity and the source is one that is widely accepted by the market.
(1) The purpose of REC 3.18 is to enable the FSA to monitor changes in the types of member admitted by UK recognised bodies and to ensure that the FSA has notice of foreign jurisdictions in which the members of UK recognised bodies are based. UK recognised bodies may admit persons who are not authorised persons or persons who are not located in the United Kingdom, provided that the recognition requirements2or (for RAPs) RAP recognition requirements continue to be met.(2) REC 3.18.2
Where a UK recognised body admits a member who is not an authorised person of a type of which, immediately before that time, that UK recognised body had not admitted to membership, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and:(1) a description of the type of person whom it is admitting to membership; 2(2) (in relation to a UK RIE or a UK RCH) 2particulars of its reasons for considering that, in admitting that type of person to membership, it is able to continue to
Where a UK recognised body admits for the first time a member whose head or registered office is in a jurisdiction from which that UK recognised body has not previously admitted members, it must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and:(1) the name of that jurisdiction; (2) the name of any regulatory authority in that jurisdiction which regulates that member in respect of activities relating to specified investments or (for an RAP) relating to emissions auction products;
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification7 requirement in TC to pass a relevant examination from the list of recommended examinations maintained by the Financial Skills Partnership7, the FSA will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.777
The restrictions mentioned in PERG 9.10.3 G are subject to a number of exemptions. For example, the controls in sections 238 and 240 do not apply to financial promotions about certain kinds of collective investment scheme. These are:(1) open-ended investment companies formed in Great Britain and authorised by the FSA under the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001;(2) authorised unit trust schemes; and(3) collective investment schemes that are recognised schemes (see
The FSA has also made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorised persons to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an open-ended investment company that is an unregulated collective investment scheme (that is, one that does not fall within PERG 9.10.4 G). The circumstances in which such a communication or approval is allowed are explained in COBS 4.12.1 R.33
A person carrying on the regulated activity of establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme that is constituted by an open-ended investment company will need permission for those activities. In line with section 237(2) of the Act (Other definitions), the operator of a collective investment scheme that is an open-ended investment company is the company itself. But where the open-ended investment company is incorporated outside the United Kingdom, it will
In negotiating its contract with a service provider, a firm should have regard to:(1) reporting or notification requirements it may wish to impose on the service provider;(2) whether sufficient access will be available to its internal auditors, external auditors or actuaries (see section 341 of the Act) and to the FSA (see SUP 2.3.5 R (Access to premises) and SUP 2.3.7 R (Suppliers under material outsourcing arrangements);(3) information ownership rights, confidentiality agreements
(1) 1A firm must, as soon as a customer expresses an interest in becoming a SRB agreement seller, ensure that the 2disclosures and warnings set out in (1A) are 2made to the customer2, both orally and confirmed in writing, and he is given an adequate opportunity to consider them. The firm must not demand or accept any fees, charges or other sums from the customer, or undertake any action that commits the customer in any way to entering into a specific agreement, until:2222(a) 2the
(1) A SRB intermediary2must ensure that, on first making contact with a prospective SRB agreement seller, whether or not he is the firm'scustomer, who is proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement with an unauthorised SRB agreement provider, it provides him with the written warning in (2) before he enters into any such agreement.2(2) The warning in (1) is that:(a) the agreement provider is not authorised or regulated by the FSA, and that key protections under
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FSA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
(1) The Remuneration Code does not contain specific notification requirements. However, general circumstances in which the FSA expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and the activities of
The FSA's policy on individual guidance is set out in SUP 9. Firms should in particular note the policy on what the FSA considers to be a reasonable request for guidance (see SUP 9.2.5 G). For example, where a firm is seeking guidance on a proposed remuneration structure the FSA will expect the firm to provide a detailed analysis of how the structure complies with the Remuneration Code, including the general requirement for remuneration policies, procedures and practices to be