Related provisions for BIPRU 11.5.21

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

MAR 4.3.1RRP
A firm must not act, or continue to act, for any person in connection with a transaction to which the Takeover Code applies1 (including a transaction subject to rule 8 (Disclosure of dealings during the offer period; also indemnity and other arrangements) of the Takeover Code1) if the firm has reasonable grounds for believing that the person in question, or his principal, is not complying or is not likely to comply with the Takeover Code.111
MCOB 13.5.6GRP
In relation to MCOB 13.5.3 R, a firm should also have regard to the general law, including the Data Protection Act 1998, on the disclosure of information to third parties.
MCOB 1.3.4RRP
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those
COBS 11.2.22RRP
A firm must provide appropriate information to its clients on its order execution policy. [Note: paragraph 2 of article 21(3) of MiFID]
SUP 11.5.1RRP

Information to be submitted by the firm (see SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a))

(1)

The name of the firm;

(2)

the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers;

(3)

a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the change in control; and5

(4)

any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.5
DISP App 3.3.12GRP
In considering the information communicated to the complainant and the complainant's information needs, the evidence to which a firm should have regard includes:(1) the complainant's individual circumstances at the time of the sale (for example, the firm should take into account any evidence of limited financial capability or understanding on the part of the complainant);(2) the complainant's objectives and intentions at the time of the sale;(3) whether, from a reasonable customer's
SUP 6.4.8GRP
The information which the FSA may request on the circumstances of the application for cancellation and the confirmations which the FSA may require a firm to provide will differ according to the nature of the firm and the activities it has Part IV permission to carry on.
SUP 12.7.7RRP
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;42the appointed representative's principal must give written notice to the FSA of that
LR 10.5.4RRP
(1) 2If a listed company becomes aware of a matter described in (2) after the publication of a circular that seeks shareholder approval for a transaction expressly requiring a vote by the listing rules, but before the date of a general meeting, it must, as soon as practicable:(a) advise the FSA of the matters of which it has become aware; and(b) send a supplementary circular to holders of its listedequity shares providing an explanation of the matters referred to in (2).(2) The
BIPRU 1.1.3GRP
In the main BIPRU only applies to a UCITS investment firm in respect of designated investment business (excluding scheme management activity). However BIPRU 2.2 (Internal capital adequacy standards), BIPRU 2.3 (Interest rate risk in the non-trading book), BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) and BIPRU 11 (Disclosure) apply to the whole of its business.
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FSA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FSA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FSA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FSA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FSA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FSA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FSA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FSA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FSA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.
MCOB 4.9.4GRP
(1) Firms are reminded that MCOB 1.2.7 R enables them to substitute an alternative for 'mortgage' in the initial disclosure document(except in relation to sections 6 and 8 of any initial disclosure document2 or sections 5 and 8 of any combined initial disclosure document2.22(2) MCOB 1.2.7 R also means that a firm mustamend any initial disclosure document2 so that the final sentence of prescribed text in section 4 states: 'You will receive an illustration which will tell you about
MCOB 13.4.4RRP
If a customer's account has previously fallen into arrears within the past 12 months (and at that time the customer received the disclosure required by MCOB 13.4.1 R), the arrears have been cleared and the customer's account falls into arrears on a subsequent occasion a firm must either:(1) issue a further disclosure in compliance with MCOB 13.4.1 R; or(2) provide a statement, in a durable medium, of the payments due, the actual payment shortfall, any charges incurred and the
DTR 5.1.2RRP
Subject to the exemption for certain third country issuers (DTR 5.11.6 R), a person must notify the issuer of the percentage of its voting rights he holds as shareholder or holds or is deemed to hold 5through his direct or indirect holding of financial instruments falling within 2DTR 5.3.1R (1) , subject to the exemption in DTR 5.3.1R(2),58 and DTR 5.3.1R (2A), (or a combination of such holdings) if the percentage of those voting rights2:22(1) reaches, exceeds or falls below 3%,
SUP 13A.9.5GRP
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
DISP App 3.4.2GRP
Where consideration of the root causes of complaints suggests recurring or systemic problems in the firm's sales practices for payment protection contracts, the firm should, in assessing an individual complaint, consider whether the problems were likely to have contributed to a breach or failing in the individual case, even if those problems were not referred to specifically by the complainant.