Related provisions for PERG 7.7.5

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SUP 12.8.1RRP
If either the firm or the appointed representative notifies the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained or referred to in SUP 12.5 (Contracts: required terms), the firm must:2(1) complete and submit to the FSA the form in SUP 12 Annex 5 R (Appointed representative termination form) in accordance with the instructions on the form and no more than ten business days after the date of the
SUP 12.8.1ARRP
(1) 4A firm other than a credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R, online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA'sONAsystem.(2) A credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit a notification online under (1), if the FSA's information technology
SUP 12.8.1BGRP
4If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.8.1AR(3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.
SUP 12.8.2GRP
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FSA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.
SUP 12.8.4GRP
The firm is responsible for notifying the FSA of any approved person who no longer performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or its appointed representative (see SUP 10.3).
SUP 12.8.5GRP
2The FSA has the power to remove from the Register an appointed representative, whose scope of appointment covers insurance mediation activities (see SUP 12.4.9 G and SUP 12.4.10 G).
SUP 13.3.2GRP
A UK firm other than a UK pure reinsurer9cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:(1) the UKfirm has given the FSA, in accordance with the FSArules (see SUP
SUP 13.3.2AGRP
4If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to establish a branch has not notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to establish a branch in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, SUP 13.3.2 G (2) and SUP 13.3.2 G (3) do not apply. Accordingly, the UK firm may establish the branch to which its notice of intention8 relates as soon
SUP 13.3.2CGRP
4An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FSA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).
SUP 13.3.5GRP
(1) 8If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Banking Consolidation Directive or10MiFID8,10 the FSA will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure.8 The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of a MiFID investment firm,
SUP 13.3.6GRP
(1) If the FSA gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details or, 8if the firm is passporting under the Insurance Directives, the relevant EEA details8 (see SUP 13 Annex 18) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention8 (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).8888(3) 10Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FSA will at the same time: (a)
DISP 1.10.1RRP
Twice a year a firm must provide the FSA with a complete report concerning complaints received from eligible complainants. The report must be set out in the format in DISP 1 Annex 1.
DISP 1.10.1CRRP
1Firms that are part of a group may submit a joint report to the FSA . The joint report must contain the information required from all firms concerned and clearly indicate the firms on whose behalf the report is submitted. The requirement to provide a report, and the responsibility for the report, remains with each firm in the group.
DISP 1.10.2ARRP
(1) 4Twice a year a firm must provide the FSA with a complete report concerning complaints received from eligible complainants about matters relating to the retail investment activities carried out by its retail investment advisers. The report must be set out in the format in DISP 1 Annex 1C R. (2) DISP 1 Annex 1C R requires (for the relevant reporting period) information about:(a) the total number of complaints received by the firm about matters relating tothe retail investment
DISP 1.10.5RRP
Reports are to be submitted to the FSA within 30 business days of the end of the relevant reporting periods through, and in the electronic format specified in, the FSA Complaints Reporting System or the appropriate section of the FSA website.
DISP 1.10.6RRP
If a firm is unable to submit a report in electronic format because of a systems failure of any kind, the firm must notify the FSA , in writing and without delay, of that systems failure.
DISP 1.10.6ARRP
(1) 5If a firm does not submit a complete report by the date on which it is due, in accordance with DISP 1.10.5 R, the firm must pay an administrative fee of £250.(2) The administrative fee in (1) does not apply if the firm has notified the FSA of a systems failure in accordance with DISP 1.10.6 R.
DISP 1.10.9RRP
For the purpose of inclusion in the public record maintained by the FSA, a firm must:(1) provide the FSA, at the time of its authorisation, with details of a single contact point within the firm for complainants; and(2) notify the FSA of any subsequent change in those details when convenient and, at the latest, in the firm's next report under the complaints reporting rules.
ICOBS 8.4.4RRP
(1) A firm carrying out contracts of insurance, or a managing agent managing insurance business, including in either case business accepted under reinsurance to close, which includes United Kingdom commercial lines employers' liability insurance, must:(a) produce an employers’ liability register complying with the requirements in (2) and ICOBS 8 Annex 1;(b) obtain and submit to the FSA2 a written statement, by a director of the firm responsible for the production of the employers’
ICOBS 8.4.5GRP
(1) For the purposes of ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(c) and ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(d), a firm may put in place appropriate screening on its employers’ liability register to monitor:(a) requests for information and searches to ensure that they are being made for a legitimate purpose by persons falling into one of the categories in ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(c); and(b) requests from tracing offices to ensure that the information is necessary, and will only be used by the tracing office, for the purposes of
ICOBS 8.4.6RRP
A firm must:(1) notify the FSA, within one month of falling within ICOBS 8.4.1R (2), as to whether or not it, or, if relevant, a member of the syndicates it manages, carries on business falling within ICOBS 8.4.4R (1) and, if it does, include in that notification: (a) details of the internet address of the firm or tracing office at which the employers’ liability register is made available;(b) the name of a contact person at the firm and their telephone number or postal address,
ICOBS 8.4.6ARRP
2A firm with potential liability under an excess policy and which satisfies the requirements in ICOBS 8 Annex 1 1.1B R must notify the FSA before the date upon which it first seeks to rely upon that rule and ensure that the requirements of ICOBS 8.4.6R (2) are satisfied in respect of this notification.
ICOBS 8.4.7RRP
(1) A firm must make available:(a) the information on the employers’ liability register either:(i) on the firm's website at the address notified to the FSA in ICOBS 8.4.6R (1); or(ii) by arranging for a tracing office which meets the conditions in ICOBS 8.4.9 R to make the information available on the tracing office’s website; and(b) the latest director's certificate and the latest report prepared by an auditor for the purposes of ICOBS 8.4.4R (1)(c), to a tracing office which
ICOBS 8.4.10GRP
(1) ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(b) and ICOBS 8.4.9R (1) require a firm, or a tracing office used by a firm, to have an effective search function in relation to the employers’ liability register database. In the FSA's view an effective search function is one which finds all matches in the register to any specified whole word.(2) For the purposes of ICOBS 8.4.9R (5) the term ‘without delay’ should have the same meaning as in ICOBS 8.4.5G (2). (3) In order to assist firms with their obligations
ICOBS 8.4.11RRP
(1) A firm must notify the FSA:(a) of any information provided to the FSA under ICOBS 8.4.6 R or ICOBS 8.4.6A R2 which ceases to be true or accurate; and(b) of the new position, in accordance with the notification requirements in ICOBS 8.4.6 R;within one month of the change.(2) A firm producing an employers’ liability register must:(a) update the register with any new or more accurate information falling within ICOBS 8 Annex 1:(i) by virtue of the entry into or renewal of, or
COND 2.4.2GRP
(1) Threshold condition 4 (Adequate resources), requires the FSA to ensure that a firm has adequate resources in relation to the specific regulated activity or regulated activities which it seeks to carry on, or carries on.(2) In this context, the FSA will interpret the term 'adequate' as meaning sufficient in terms of quantity, quality and availability, and 'resources' as including all financial resources, non-financial resources and means of managing its resources; for example,
COND 2.4.3GRP
(1) When assessing this threshold condition, the FSA may have regard to any person appearing to it to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 49 of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant); for example, a firm's controllers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the threshold
COND 2.4.4GRP
(1) When assessing whether a firm will satisfy and continue to satisfy threshold condition 4, the FSA will have regard to all relevant matters, whether arising in the United Kingdom or elsewhere.(2) Relevant matters may include but are not limited to:(a) whether there are any indications that the firm may have difficulties if the application is granted (see COND 2.4.6 G), at the time of the grant or in the future, in complying with any of the FSA'sprudential rules (see the relevant
FINMAR 2.5.1GRP
1The FSA is required by article 23 of the short selling regulation to consider whether to impose measures to prohibit or restrict short selling or otherwise limit transactions in a financial instrument on a trading venue where the price of that financial instrument on that trading venue has fallen significantly during a single trading day in relation to the closing price on that venue on the previous trading day. In fulfilling this obligation, the FSA will assess:(1) whether the
FINMAR 2.5.2GRP
The FSA will assess whether the price fall in a financial instrument on a trading venue is or may become disorderly having regard to at least the following factors:(1) whether there have been violent movements in the price of the particular financial instrument on a particular trading venue, including any sudden or significant movements in price of a financial instrument during the trading day;(2) whether there is evidence of unusual or improper trading in the financial instrument
FINMAR 2.5.3GRP
The FSA may consider that the price fall in a financial instrument is not disorderly, for example, if the FSA considers that there is legitimate cause for a price fall in trading, such as the announcement of poor financial results.
FINMAR 2.5.4GRP
The FSA will consider at least the following factors when assessing whether measures to prohibit or restrict short selling or otherwise limit transactions are necessary or likely to prevent a further disorderly decline in the price of the financial instrument:(1) the volume of trading in that financial instrument on the trading venue as compared with the total trading volume in the financial instrument over at least that trading day; and(2) whether the price of the financial instrument
FINMAR 2.5.5GRP
Where the FSA imposes measures under article 23 of the short selling regulation it will normally specify that the measures will not apply to natural or legal persons who have satisfied the criteria to use the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption and who are included on the list maintained and published by ESMA pursuant to article 17(13) of the short selling regulation.
FINMAR 2.5.6GRP
(1) For the purposes of article 23(1)(b) of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 918/2012 the FSA will convert the figure of EUR 0.50 into pounds sterling using the daily spot foreign exchange rate of Sterling to Euro of the Bank of England applicable at the end of the first business day of October 2012 rounded up to the nearest £0.01. The FSA will state this figure (the 'sterling figure') on its public website.(2) The rate will be calculated on the same basis at the end of
FINMAR 2.5.7GRP
The FSA will treat the FTSE 100 index as the main national equity index of the Member State for the purposes of article 6(4) of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 827/2012 and article 4 of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 826/2012 and article 23(1) of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 918/2012, all subject to approval by European Parliament and Council.
REC 4.2C.1GRP
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FSA, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FSA's approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.33333
REC 4.2C.2GRP
The FSA will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.3333
REC 4.2C.3GRP
If a proposed acquirer 3has complied with the obligation to notify, the procedure the FSA will follow if it approves or does not approve of that person acquiring or increasing control 3is set out in sections3 301F and 301G 3of the Act.333
REC 4.2C.6GRP
The FSA's internal arrangements provide for any decisions to refuse to approve an acquisition or3 object to an existing control to be taken at an appropriately senior level.3
REC 4.2C.7GRP
If the FSA refuses to approve an acquisition3 or objects to an existing control, the person concerned may refer the matter to the Tribunal (see EG 2.39).232
REC 4.2C.8GRP
The powers the FSA can exercise in the event that a person acquires or continues to exercise control notwithstanding the FSA's refusal to approve the acquisition of control or the FSA's objection to the exercise of control are set out in sections 301J and 301K 3of the Act.3
PERG 4.6.2GRP
In the FSA's view, the circumstances in which a person is giving advice on the borrower varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract so as to vary his obligations under the contract include (but are not limited to) where the advice is about:(1) the borrower obtaining a further advance secured on the same land as the original loan; or(2) a rate switch or a product switch (that is, where the borrower does not change lender but changes the terms for repayment from, say, a variable
PERG 4.6.9GRP
In the FSA's view, guiding a person through scripted questions or a decision tree should not, of itself, involve advice within the meaning of article 53A (it should be generic advice). But the combination of advice, which in isolation may properly be considered generic, with the identification of a particular or several particular regulated mortgage contracts may well, in the FSA's view, cause the person to be advising on regulated mortgage contracts; the FSA considers that it
PERG 4.6.13GRP
In the FSA's view, advice requires an element of opinion on the part of the adviser which steers or is intended to steer a borrower or potential borrower in the direction of one or more particular mortgages. In effect, it is a recommendation as to a course of action. Information on the other hand, involves objective statements of facts and figures.
PERG 4.6.16GRP
In the FSA's opinion, however, such information is likely take on the nature of advice if the circumstances in which it is provided give it the force of a recommendation as described in PERG 4.6.10 G. Examples of situations where information provided by a person ('P') are likely to take the form of advice are given below.(1) P provides information on a selected, rather than balanced and neutral, basis that would tend to influence the decision of the borrower. This may arise where
PERG 4.6.22GRP
Undertaking the process of scripted questioning gives rise to particular issues concerning advice. These mainly involve two aspects of this regulated activity. These are that advice must relate to a particular regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.6.5 G) and the distinction between information and advice (see PERG 4.6.13 G). Whether or not scripted questioning in any particular case is advising on regulated mortgage contracts will depend on all the circumstances. If the process
PERG 4.6.23GRP
The potential for variation in the form, content and manner of scripted questioning is considerable, but there are two broad types. The first type involves providing questions and answers which are confined to factual matters (for example, whether a borrower wishes to pay a fixed or variable rate of interest or the size of deposit available). In the FSA's view, this does not of itself amount to advising on regulated mortgage contracts, as it involves the provision of information
PERG 4.6.25GRP
In the scenarios identified inPERG 4.6.23G (3)1 andPERG 4.6.24G (2)1, the FSA considers that it is necessary to look at the process and outcome of scripted questioning as a whole. It may be that the element of advice incorporated in the questioning may properly be viewed as generic advice if it were considered in isolation. But, although the actual advice may be generic, the process has ended in identifying one or more particular regulated mortgage contracts. The combination of
REC 6.7.2GRP
The notification rules in this chapter are made by the FSA in order to ensure that it is provided with notice of events and information which it reasonably requires for the exercise of its functions under the Act.
REC 6.7.3RRP
Where an overseas recognised body includes in its report made under section 295(1) of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) a statement in compliance with section 295(2)(a) of the Act that an event has occurred in the period covered by that report which is likely to affect the FSA's assessment of whether it is satisfied as to the requirements set out in section 292(3) (Overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses), it
REC 6.7.5RRP
An overseas recognised body must include in the first report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act after the recognition order in relation to that overseas recognised body is made: (1) particulars of any events of the kind described in section 295(2) of the Act which occurred; (2) particulars of any change specified in REC 6.7.4 R (1) or disciplinary action specified in REC 6.7.4 R (2) which occurred; and(3) any annual report and accounts which covered a period ending; after
REC 6.7.7RRP
Where an overseas recognised body proposes to change: (1) its address in the United Kingdom for the service of notices or other documents required or authorised to be served on it under the Act; or(2) the address of its head office;it must give notice to the FSA and inform it of the new address at least 14 days before the change is effected.
REC 6.7.8RRP
Where an overseas recognised body has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the overseas recognised body in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;it must immediately notify the FSA of that fact and must give the FSA the information specified for the purposes
REC 6.7.13GRP
Overseas recognised bodies may apply to the FSA for a waiver of any of the notification rules. The procedure is the same as that for applications from UK recognised bodies. Guidance on the procedure is given in REC 3.3.
SUP 14.3.3GRP
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FSA (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the FSA and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).1
SUP 14.3.4GRP
Under regulation 5(4), the FSA is required, as soon as practicable after receiving the notice in SUP 14.3.3 G, to inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.
SUP 14.3.4CGRP
5Under regulation 5(4), the FSA is required, as soon as practicable after receiving the notice in SUP 14.3.4B G, to inform the incoming EEA firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.
PERG 5.6.2GRP
The activity in article 25(1) is carried on only if the arrangements bring about, or would bring about, the transaction to which the arrangement relates. This is because of the exclusion in article 26 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arrangements not causing a deal). Article 26 excludes from article 25(1) arrangements which do not bring about or would not bring about the transaction to which the arrangements relate. In the FSA's view, a person would bring about a contract of
PERG 5.6.4GRP
Article 25(2) may, for instance, include activities of persons who help potential policyholders fill in or check application forms in the context of ongoing arrangements between these persons and insurance undertakings. A further example of this activity would be a person introducing customers to an intermediary either for advice or to help arrange an insurance policy. The introduction might be oral or written. By contrast, the FSA considers that a mere passive display of literature
PERG 5.6.7GRP
In the FSA's view, 'incidental' in this context means that the activity must arise out of, be complementary to or otherwise be sufficiently closely connected with the profession or business. In other words, there must be an inherent link between the activity and the firm's main business. For example, introducing dental insurance may be incidental to a dentist's activities; introducing pet insurance would not be incidental to his activities. In addition, to be considered 'incidental',
PERG 5.6.8GRP
This exclusion applies to a person whose profession or business does not otherwise consist of regulated activities. In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business consists of regulated activities. This is provided that the main focus of the profession or business does not involve regulated activities and that the regulated activities
PERG 5.6.11GRP
In the FSA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion in article 27 is the inclusion of the word 'merely'. When a publisher, broadcaster or internet website operator goes beyond what is necessary for him to provide his service of publishing, broadcasting or otherwise facilitating the issue of promotions, he may well bring himself within the scope of article 25(2). Further detailed guidance relating to the scope of the exclusion in article 27 is contained in PERG 2.8.6G (2) (Arranging
PERG 5.6.16GRP
The restriction in the scope of article 28 raises an issue where there is a trust with co-trustees, where each trustee will be a policyholder with equal rights and obligations. If the activities of one of the trustees include arranging in respect of contracts of insurance, that trustee could be viewed as arranging on behalf of his co-trustees who will also be policyholders. Similar issues also arise in respect of trustees assisting in the administration and performance of a contract
PERG 5.6.18GRP
The effect of PERG 5.6.17G (4) is that some persons who, in making introductions, are making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments under article 25(2) of the Regulated Activities Order, cannot use the introducing exclusion. This is if, in general terms, the arrangements for making introductions relate to contracts of insurance (PERG 5.6.19 G has further guidance on when arrangements for introductions may be regarded as relating to contracts of insurance). However,
PERG 5.6.19GRP
Where a person is making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments by way of making introductions, and he is not completely indifferent to whether or not transactions may result, it may still be the case that the exclusion in article 33 will apply. In the FSA's view, this is where:(1) the introduction is for independent advice on investments generally; and(2) the introducer is indifferent as to whether or not a contract of insurance may ultimately be bought (or
FIT 1.2.1GRP
Under section 61(1) of the Act (Determination of applications), the FSA may grant an application for approval made under section 60 (Applications for approval) only if it is satisfied that the candidate is fit and proper to perform the controlled function to which the application relates.
FIT 1.2.4GRP
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the FSA should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the FSA may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person is competent to carry out a controlled function.
LR 5.2.1RRP
The FSA may cancel the listing of securities if it is satisfied that there are special circumstances that preclude normal regular dealings in them. [Note: article 18(2) CARD]
LR 5.2.2GRP
Examples of when the FSA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FSA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 25% or such lower percentage as the FSA may permit (the FSA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage,
LR 5.2.3GRP
The FSA will generally seek to cancel the listing of an issuer'sequity shares or certificates representing equity securities when the issuer completes a reverse takeover.[Note: LR 5.6 contains further detail relating to reverse takeovers.]7557
LR 5.2.4RRP
An issuer must satisfy the requirements applicable to it in LR 5.2.5 R to LR 5.2.11 R and LR 5.3 before the FSA will cancel the listing of its securities at its request.
LR 5.2.5RRP
Subject to 41LR 5.2.7 R, LR 5.2.10 R and LR 5.2.12 R, 1an issuer with a premium listing4that wishes the FSA to cancel the listing of any of its 5equity shares1with a premium listing4must:1114(1) send a circular to the holders of the securities. The circular must:(a) comply with the requirements of LR 13.3.1 R and LR 13.3.2 R (contents of all circulars);(b) be submitted to the FSA for approval prior to publication; and(c) include the anticipated date of cancellation (which must
LR 5.2.8RRP
An issuer that wishes the FSA to cancel the listing of listed securities (other than equity shares1with a premium listing41) must notify a RIS, giving at least 20 business days notice of the intended cancellation but is not required to obtain the approval of the holders of those securities contemplated in LR 5.2.5 R (2).1544
LR 5.2.13GRP
6In determining whether the statutory winding up or reconstruction measures in relation to an overseasissuer under equivalent overseas legislation have a similar effect to those set out in LR 5.2.12R (1) to LR 5.2.12R (6), the FSA will in particular have regard to whether those procedures require a court order, the approval of 75% of the shareholders entitled to vote on the resolution, or a formal declaration of the overseasissuer's insolvency or inability to pay its debts.
SUP 13.4.2GRP
A UK firm, other than a UK pure reinsurer,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the
SUP 13.4.2BGRP
4An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FSA under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may provide cross border services in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).
SUP 13.4.4GRP
8(1) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives from MiFID8, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention8 to the Host State Regulator within one month8 of receipt.8A UK firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive10 may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).88888810(2) (a) If8 the
COLL 6.9.2GRP
(1) Regulation 15(8)(f) of the OEIC Regulations (Requirements for authorisation) requires independence between the depositary, the ICVC and the ICVC's directors, as does section 243(4) of the Act (Authorisation orders) for the trustee and manager of an AUT. COLL 6.9.3 G to COLL 6.9.5 G give FSA's view of the meaning of independence of these relationships. An ICVC, its directors and depositary or a manager and a trustee of an AUT are referred to as "relevant parties" in this guidance.(2)
COLL 6.9.3GRP
(1) Independence is likely to be lost if, by means of executive power, either relevant party could control the action of the other.(2) The board of one relevant party should not be able to exercise effective control of the board of another relevant party. Arrangements which might indicate this situation include quorum provisions and reservations of decision-making capacity of certain directors.(3) For an AUT, the FSA would interpret the concept of directors in common to include
COLL 6.9.4GRP
Independence is likely to be lost if either of the relevant parties could control the actions of the other by means of shareholders' votes. The FSA considers this would happen if any shareholding by one relevant party and their respective associates in the other exceeds 15% of the voting share capital, either in a single share class or several share classes. The FSA would be willing, however, to look at cross-shareholdings exceeding 15% on a case-by-case basis to consider if there
COLL 6.9.5GRP
The FSA would encourage relevant parties to consult it in advance about its view on the consequences of any intended contractual commitment or relationship which could affect independence, whether directly or indirectly.
COLL 6.9.6GRP
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FSA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FSA will take into account whether the name of the
COLL 6.9.8GRP
When deciding whether COLL 6.9.7R is complied with, the FSA will take into account COLL 6.9.6G. COLL 6.9.7R applies generally and not just to the names that include the words "guaranteed" or "capital protected".
COLL 6.9.11RRP
An ICVC must notify the FSA within 14 days of the occurrence of any of the following:(1) any amendment to the instrument of incorporation;(2) any change in the address of the head office of the ICVC;(3) any change of director;(4) any change of depositary;(5) in respect of any director or depositary, any change in the information mentioned in regulation 12(1)(b) or (c) of the OEIC Regulations (Applications for authorisation);(6) any change of the auditor of the ICVC;(7) any order
REC 3.4.1GRP
The purpose of REC 3.4 is to enable the FSA to monitor changes in the arrangements a UK recognised body makes for the carrying out of its relevant functions or for overseeing the work of key individuals or departments responsible for its relevant functions.
REC 3.4.2ARRP
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a key individual, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FSA. [Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]
REC 3.4.2BRRP
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a person has resigned as, or has ceased to be, a key individual, that UK RIE must immediately give notice of that event, and give the name of the person.[Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence ofMiFID]
REC 3.4.3GRP
(1) Key individuals include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a key individual.(2) A key individual need not be an employee of a
REC 3.4.4ARRP
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his date of birth;(3) where applicable, a description of the responsibilities which he will have in the post to which he is to be appointed or elected.[Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]
REC 3.4.5RRP
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FSA of that event and give the FSA the following information:(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms of
REC 3.4.6RRP
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FSA of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FSA.
SUP 9.2.1GRP
Requests for individual guidance may be made in writing or orally. Requests for individual guidance in relation to the Part 6 rules should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency or in the case of a request from a sponsor in relation to the provision of a sponsor service. 2If oral queries raise complex or significant issues, the FSA will normally expect the details of the request to be confirmed in writing. Simple requests for guidance may often be
SUP 9.2.2GRP
A firm and its professional advisers should address requests for individual guidance to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FSA, with the exception of requests for guidance on the Code of Market Conduct (MAR 1) which should be addressed to the specialist team within the Markets and Exchanges Division. A firm may wish to discuss a request for guidance with the relevant contact before making a written request.
SUP 9.2.3GRP
A person who is not a firm should address his request for individual guidance to the appropriate department within the FSA. A person who is unsure of where to address his request may address his enquiry to the FSA, making clear the nature of the request.
SUP 9.2.4GRP
The FSA does not expect to enter into discussions on a 'no-name' basis about the affairs of an individual person.112
SUP 9.2.5GRP
The FSA will aim to respond quickly and fully to reasonable requests. The FSA will give high priority to enquiries about areas of genuine uncertainty or about difficulties in relating established requirements to innovative practices or products. What constitutes a 'reasonable request' is a matter for the FSA. It will depend on the nature of the request and on the resources of the firm or other person making it. The FSA will expect the person to have taken reasonable steps to research
SUP 9.2.6GRP
The FSA will always need sufficient information and time before it can properly evaluate the situation and respond to a request. If a request is time-critical, the person or its professional adviser should make this clear. The more notice a person can give the FSA, the more likely it is that the FSA will be able to meet the person's timetable. However, the time taken to respond will necessarily depend upon the complexity and novelty of the issues involved. In making a request,
FEES 3.1.3GRP
The purpose of this chapter is to set out the FSA fee paying requirements on the persons set out in FEES 1.1.2R (1).519
FEES 3.1.5GRP
(1) The rates set for authorisation fees represent an appropriate proportion of the costs of the FSA in processing the application or exercise of Treaty rights.(2) The fees for collective investment schemes reflect the estimated costs to the FSA of assessing applications and notifications. The level of fees payable in respect of an application or a notification will vary depending upon the provision of the Act under which it is made. This fee is adjusted when the scheme concerned
FEES 3.1.6GRP
Applications for Part IV permission (and exercises of Treaty rights) are categorised by the FSA for the purpose of fee raising as complex, moderately complex and straightforward as identified in FEES 3 Annex 1. This differentiation is based on the permitted activities sought and does not reflect the FSA's risk assessment of the applicant (or Treaty firm).
FEES 3.1.7GRP
A potential applicant for Part IV permission (or Treaty firm) has the opportunity to discuss its proposed application (or exercise of Treaty rights) with the FSA before submitting it formally.2 (For more information, contact the Firm Contact Centre (020 7066 3954) or visit the FSA website How do I get authorised: http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml.)2 If an applicant for Part IV permission (or Treaty firm) does so, the FSA will be able to use that dialogue to make
DEPP 6.5D.1GRP
(1) 1The FSA's approach to determining penalties described in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5C is intended to ensure that financial penalties are proportionate to the breach. The FSA recognises that penalties may affect persons differently, and that the FSA should consider whether a reduction in the proposed penalty is appropriate if the penalty would cause the subject of enforcement action serious financial hardship.(2) Where an individual or firm claims that payment of the penalty proposed
DEPP 6.5D.2GRP
(1) In assessing whether a penalty would cause an individual serious financial hardship, the FSA will consider the individual’s ability to pay the penalty over a reasonable period (normally no greater than three years). The FSA’s starting point is that an individual will suffer serious financial hardship only if during that period his net annual income will fall below £14,000 and his capital will fall below £16,000 as a result of payment of the penalty. Unless the FSA believes
DEPP 6.5D.3GRP
In cases against individuals, including market abuse cases, the FSA may make a prohibition order under section 56 of the Act or withdraw an individual’s approval under section 63 of the Act, as well as impose a financial penalty. Such action by the FSA reflects the FSA’s assessment of the individual’s fitness to perform regulated activity or suitability for a particular role, and does not affect the FSA’s assessment of the appropriate financial penalty in relation to a breach.
DEPP 6.5D.4GRP
(1) The FSA will consider reducing the amount of a penalty if a firm will suffer serious financial hardship as a result of having to pay the entire penalty. In deciding whether it is appropriate to reduce the penalty, the FSA will take into consideration the firm’s financial circumstances, including whether the penalty would render the firm insolvent or threaten the firm’s solvency. The FSA will also take into account its regulatory objectives, for example in situations where
DEPP 6.5D.4AGRP
2The FSA may withdraw a firm’s authorisation under section 33 of the Act, as well as impose a financial penalty. Such action by the FSA does not affect the FSA's assessment of the appropriate financial penalty in relation to a breach. However, the fact that the FSA has withdrawn a firm’s authorisation, as a result of which the firm may have less earning potential, may be relevant in assessing whether the penalty will cause the firm serious financial hardship.
DEPP 6.5D.5GRP
Where the FSA considers that, following commencement of an FSA investigation, an individual or firm has reduced their solvency in order to reduce the amount of any disgorgement or financial penalty payable, for example by transferring assets to third parties, the FSA will normally take account of those assets when determining whether the individual or firm would suffer serious financial hardship as a result of the disgorgement and financial penalty.
PERG 8.6.1GRP
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
PERG 8.6.2GRP
Apart from the originators of a financial promotion, the FSA considers the following persons to be communicating it or causing it to be communicated:(1) publishers and broadcasters who carry advertisements (including websites carrying banner advertisements); and(2) intermediaries who redistribute another person’s communication probably with their own communications.
PERG 8.6.3GRP
In the FSA's view, the following persons will not be causing or communicating:(1) advertising agencies and others when they are designing advertising material for originators;(2) persons who print or produce material for others to use as advertisements;(3) professional advisers when they are preparing material for clients or advising them on the need to communicate or the merits or consequences of their communicating a financial promotion; and(4) persons who are responsible for
PERG 8.6.4GRP
The FSA considers that, to communicate, a person must take some active step to make the communication. This will be a question of fact in each case. But a person who knowingly leaves copies of a document where it is reasonable to presume that persons will pick up copies and may seek to act on them will be communicating them.
PERG 8.6.7GRP
A general point arises about causing and communicating on whether a particular exemption that applies to a communication made by a specified person also applies to a person who is causing that communication to be made. For example, article 551 of the Financial Promotion Order (Communications by members of professions)1 applies only to a communication by an exempt professional firm.1 This exemption may apply where a person ('P') requests an exempt professional firm ('E') to1communicate
PERG 8.6.8GRP
Another general point arises about the scope of exemptions that apply only to financial promotions by a particular person. This is whether the exemption applies to the communication of a financial promotion by an unauthorised person on behalf of the person to whom the exemption applies. In the FSA's view, this will not be the case unless the exemption specifically states that it applies to a communication made on behalf of the person identified in the exemption. For example, article
PERG 8.6.10GRP
In the FSA's opinion, the matters in PERG 8.6.9 G have the following effects.(1) Any one particular communication will either be real time or non-real time but not both. This is because:(a) a real time communication is one made in the course of an interactive dialogue (see PERG 8.10.2 G for guidance on the meaning of real time);(b) those exemptions which concern real time communications apply only to communications which are made to persons and not those which are directed at