Related provisions for BIPRU 4.10.8
21 - 40 of 180 items.
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
If admission
to trading of non-equity transferable
securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount)
is sought in the United Kingdom or
in one or more other EEA States,
the prospectus must be drawn
up in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host
States or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as
If:(1) an offer is
made in the United Kingdom;(2) a prospectus relating
to the transferable securities has
been approved by the competent authority of another EEA
State and the prospectus contains
a summary; and(3) the prospectus is drawn up in a language other than English
that is customary in the sphere of international finance;222the offeror must
ensure that the summary is
translated into English. [ Note: article
19.2 PD ]
If it appears to the FSA that an auditor of a firm has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it may disqualify him under section 345 of the Act. For more detail about what happens when the disqualification of an auditor is being considered or put into effect, see EG 151. A list of persons who are disqualified by the FSA under section 345 of the Act may be found on the FSA website (www.fsa.gov.uk).1
To enable it to assess the ability of an auditor to audit a firm, the FSA may seek information about the auditor's relevant experience and skill. The FSA will normally seek information by letter from an auditor who has not previously audited any firm. The firm should instruct the auditor to reply fully to the letter (and should not appoint an auditor who does not reply to the FSA). The FSA may also seek further information on a continuing basis from the auditor of a firm (see
(1) When the FSA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any) to:(a) the EEA firm; and(b) in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Directives, the Home State regulator;within two months of the notice2 date.2(1A) The notice date is:2(a) for a MiFID investment firm, the date on which the Home State gave the consent
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FSA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application of
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State should be aware that it may be required by the laws, regulations and administrative provisions of the Host State regulator to maintain facilities in that State, including for making payments to unitholders, repurchasing or redeeming units and making available the information which is required to be provided in relation to the scheme.[Note: article 92 of the UCITS Directive]
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that investors within the territory of that Host State are provided with all the information and documents which it is required by the Handbook to provide to investors in the United Kingdom.(2) The information and documents referred to in (1) must be provided to investors in the way prescribed by the laws, regulations or administrative provisions of the Host State and in
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FSA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1). This might arise if the activity itself
Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator.
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml.1 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).1
Discussions with the FSA are particularly relevant where the firm has to discharge obligations to its customers or policyholders before it can cease carrying on a regulated activity. This may be the case, for example, where the firm is an insurer, a bank a dormant account fund operator,4 or, as is often the case, holding client money or customer assets.
A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its usual supervisory contact at the FSA to discuss its circumstances. The FSA will discuss the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel its Part IV permission. Following these discussions, an application for variation or cancellation of Part IV permission, as appropriate, should usually be made by the firm, although, in certain circumstances, the FSA may use its own-initiative
(1) Specific guidance on the additional procedures for a firm winding down (running off) its business in the circumstances discussed in SUP 6.2.8 G is in SUP 6 Annex 4.(2) The guidance in SUP 6 Annex 4 applies to any firm that is applying for variation of Part IV permission before it applies for cancellation of Part IV permission to enable it to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period of six months of more. It will apply to most insurers and banks and, in some
Information to be submitted by the firm (see SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a))
(1) |
The name of the firm; |
(2) |
the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers; |
(3) |
a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the change in control; and5 |
(4) |
any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.5 |
Firms are reminded that a change in control may give rise to a change in the groupcompanies to which the FSA's consolidated financial supervision requirements apply. Also, the firm may for the first time become subject to the FSA's requirements on consolidated financial supervision (or equivalent requirements imposed by another EEA State). This may apply, for example, if the controller is itself an authorised undertaking. The FSA may therefore request such a firm, controller or
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the FSA by submitting a single joint section 178 notice5containing the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the section 178 notice53 may be used on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.5355
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the FSA by submitting a single section 178 notice5 containing one set of information.5
If transferable securities are admitted to trading in more than one EEA State including the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed:(1) in English; and(2) either in a language accepted by the competent authorities of each Host State or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer. [Note: article 20(2) of the TD]
(1) If transferable securities are admitted to trading in one or more EEA States excluding the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either:(a) in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those Host States; or(b) in a language customary in the sphere of international finance,at the choice of the issuer.(2) Where the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either in English or
If transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,000 euros1 (or an equivalent amount) are admitted to trading in the United Kingdom or in one or more EEA States, regulated information must be disclosed to the public in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer or of the person who, without the issuer's consent,
Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:
Prospectus approved in another EEA State |
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87H |
(1) |
A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3 |
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(a) |
a certificate of approval; |
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(b) |
a copy of the prospectus as approved; and |
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(c) |
if requested by the [FSA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus. |
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(2) |
A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus - |
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(a) |
has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and |
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(b) |
has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate. |
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(3) |
A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included. |
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3(3A) |
The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section. |
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3(3B) |
The list referred to in subsection (3A) must - |
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(a) |
be kept up-to-date; |
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(b) |
retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and |
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(c) |
include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of - |
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(i) |
the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate; |
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(ii) |
the issuer; or |
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(iii) |
the regulated market where admission to trading is sought. |
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(4) |
"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus. |
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Provision of information to host Member State |
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87I |
(1) |
The [FSA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with – |
|
(a) |
a certificate of approval; |
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(b) |
a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FSA]); and |
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(c) |
a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2 |
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(1A)2 |
If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to - |
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(a) |
the person who made the request under this section; and |
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(b) |
ESMA. |
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(2) |
Only the following may make a request under this section – |
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(a) |
the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates; |
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(b) |
a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom; |
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(c) |
a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom. |
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(3) |
A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus – |
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(a) |
has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and |
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(b) |
has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FSA]. |
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(4) |
A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FSA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included. |
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(5) |
The [FSA] must comply with a request under this section – |
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(a) |
if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or 2 |
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(b) |
if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus. |
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(6) |
“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus. |
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(7) |
“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section. |
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(1) This rule applies to a request by a person to the FSA to supply information referred to in section 87I of the Act to the competent authority of a relevant Host State.(2) The request must be in writing and must include:(a) the relevant prospectus as approved (if it has already been approved); and(b) a translation of the summary if required by the competent authority of a relevant host State.
In the FSA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective
UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes are advised that to the extent that the matters referred to in COLL 6.12.5 R (3)(a) are viewed by the UCITSHome State regulator as falling under its responsibility, they will be expected to comply with the UCITS Home State measures implementing articles 40 and 41 of the UCITS implementing Directive.
UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes are advised that to the extent that the matters referred to in COLL 6.12.9R (1)(b) are viewed by the UCITSHome State regulator as falling under its responsibility, they will be expected to comply with the UCITS Home State measures implementing articles 41 and 43 of the UCITS implementing Directive.
(1) An authorised fund manager or a UKUCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must employ an appropriate liquidity risk management process in order to ensure that each UCITS it manages is able to comply at any time with COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption) or the equivalent UCITS Home State measures implementing article 84(1) of the UCITS Directive.(2) Where appropriate, the authorised fund manager or UKUCITS management company must conduct stress tests to enable it to
A UK firm, other than a UK pure reinsurer,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from the Insurance Directives, paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to breach this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the
4An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may provide cross border services in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention8 in SUP 13.4.2 G (1) should be given to the FSA by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative5.8
8(1) If8 the UK firm'sEEA right derives from MiFID8, the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, paragraph 20(3) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FSA to send a copy of the notice of intention8 to the Host State Regulator within one month8 of receipt.8A UK firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive10 may start providing cross border services as soon as it satisfies the relevant conditions (see SUP 13.4.2 G).88888810(2) (a) If8 the
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FSA],with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. |
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FSA and other appropriate bodies, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FSA and other appropriate bodies.
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FSA and other appropriate bodies, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FSA in the exercise of its functions;(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FSA or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues enquiries
1DEPP 7 applies when the FSA:(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) or of an EEA regulator under
section 131FA2 of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator or
of the EEA regulator2 to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes
The FSA is keen to promote co-operation with overseas
regulators and EEA regulators2. It views provision of assistance
to overseas regulators and EEA
regulators2 as an essential part of the principles
set out in section 2(3)(e) of the Act to
which it must have regard in discharging its general functions.
(1) A firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part IV permission, must apply online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the form specified on the FSA's ONA system.99(2) A credit union wishing to cancel its Part IV permission must apply using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6D and submit its application in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification). The application must be addressed for the attention of the Cancellations Team at the FSA.99(a) [deleted]949(b)
A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part IV permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time, comply with SUP 10.13.6 R and notify the FSA of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions. These forms should give the effective date of withdrawal, if known (see SUP 10 (Approved persons)).
In deciding whether to cancel a firm'sPart IV permission, the FSA will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;(2) the firm has complied with CASS 4.3.99 R,5CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.2.15 R5 (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty) and CASS 4.3.104 R and CASS 7.2.19 R5(Client money: allocated but
Section 224F of the Act enables the FSA to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons (or any class of authorised persons) in order to meet its management expenses incurred if, under Part 15A of the Act, it is required by HM Treasury to act in relation to relevant schemes. But those rules must provide that the FSCS can impose a levy only if the FSCS has tried its best to obtain reimbursement of those expenses from the manager of the relevant scheme.
Within each class2 there are one or moresub-classes.2 These relate to different types of activity carried on by participant firms within each class.2 Within a class,2 individual participant firms are allocated for funding purposes to one or more sub-classes,2 depending on their business activities. This, together with the provisions on the allocation of levies to sub-classes up to their levy limits,2 meetsa requirement of section 213(5) of the Act that the FSA, in making rules
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
(1) A person seeking to have the function of approving a prospectus transferred to the competent authority of another EEA State must make a written request to the FSA at least 10 working days before the date the transfer is sought.(2) The request must:(a) set out the reasons for the proposed transfer;(b) state the name of the competent authority to whom the transfer is sought; and(c) include a copy of the draft prospectus.
The FSA will consider transferring the function of approving a prospectus to the competent authority of another EEA State:(1) if requested to do so by the issuer, offeror or person requesting admission or by another competent authority; or(2) in other cases if the FSA considers it would be more appropriate for another competent authority to perform that function.
(1) 5Unless exempt under FEES 6.2.1 R, a participant firm must provide the FSCS by the end of February each year (or, if it has become a participant firm part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FSA) with a statement of:4(a) sub-classes to which it belongs; and4(b) the total amount of business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base or tariff bases) which it conducted, in respect of the most recent valuation period (as specified by FEES
If a participant firm does not submit a complete statement by the date on which it is due in accordance with FEES 6.5.13 R and any prescribed submission procedures:(1) the firm must pay an administrative fee of £250 (but not if it is already subject to an administrative fee under FEES 4 Annex 2 Part 1 or FEES 5.4.1 R for the same financial year); and(2) the compensation costs levy and any specific costs levy will be calculated using (where relevant) the valuation or valuations
The FSA will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
In addition to the general factors outlined in DEPP 6.2.1 G, there are some additional considerations that may be relevant when deciding whether to take action against an approved person pursuant to section 66 of the Act. This list of those considerations is non-exhaustive. Not all considerations below may be relevant in every case, and there may be other considerations, not listed, that are relevant.(1) The approved person's position and responsibilities. The FSA may take into
When deciding how to proceed in such cases, the FSA will examine the circumstances of the case, and consider, in the light of the relevant investigation, disciplinary and enforcement powers, whether it is appropriate for the FSA or another authority to take action to address the breach. The FSA will have regard to all the circumstances of the case including whether the other authority has adequate powers to address the breach in question.