Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C

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COLL 6.6.7RRP
The ACD must immediately notify the FSA in writing if the ICVC's capital falls below the minimum or exceeds the maximum stated in the instrument of incorporation.
COLL 6.6.11GRP
SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FSA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) that the FSA would reasonably view as significant.
COLL 6.6.15ARRP
(1) 8This rule applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager (other than an EEA UCITS management company) of an AUT or an ICVC where such AUT or ICVC is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) The authorised fund manager has the power to retain the services of any person to
COLL 6.6.16GRP
(1) Directors of an ICVC, authorised fund managers and depositaries should also have regard to SYSC 8 (Outsourcing).66SYSC 8.1.6 R4 states that a firm remains fully responsible for discharging 6all of its obligations under the regulatory system6 if it outsources crucial or important operational functions4 or any relevant services and activities.6646644(2) SUP 15.8.6 R (Delegation by UCITS management companies) requires the 8authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to inform the
PERG 4.8.6GRP
If an unauthorised administrator makes arrangements for a mortgage administrator to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, the exclusion may cease to be available because the mortgage administrator ceases to have the required permission, or because the arrangement is terminated. The exclusion gives the unauthorised administrator a one-month grace period during which it may administer the contracts itself. If the period of administration exceeds one month, the unauthorised
PERG 4.8.7GRP
Under article 63 of the Regulated Activities Order, a person who is not an authorised person does not administer a regulated mortgage contract if he administers the contract under an agreement with a firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract. A firm with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract may thus outsource or delegate the administration function to an unauthorised third party. A firm that proposes to do this should however note, as set
APER 4.2.2ERP
In the opinion of the FSA, conduct of the type described in APER 4.2.3 E, APER 4.2.5 E, APER 4.2.6 E, APER 4.2.8 E, APER 4.2.10 E, APER 4.2.11 E ,22APER 4.2.13 E or APER 4.2.14 E2 does not comply with Statement of Principle 2 (APER 2.1.2 P).
COLL 7.2.1RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
COLL 7.2.1ARRP
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FSA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
SUP 13.2.2GRP
A UK firm should be aware that the guidance is the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and is not a substitute for firms consulting the legislation or taking their own legal advice in the United Kingdom and in the relevant EEA States.
DTR 1.1.1RRP
1The disclosure rules apply as follows:(1) DTR 1 and DTR 2 apply to an issuer whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom or for which a request for admission to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom has been made;(2) DTR 3 applies to an issuer that is incorporated in the United Kingdom:(a) whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on a regulated market; or(b) for whose financial instruments a request
DTR 1.1.3GRP
In relation to the disclosure rules, the FSA is exercising its functions as the competent authority under Part VI of the Act (see section 72(1) of the Act).Other relevant parts of HandbookNote: Other parts of the Handbook that may also be relevant to persons to whom the disclosure rules apply include DEPP (Decision Procedure and Penalties Manual)3 and 3Chapter 9 of SUP (the Supervision manual).The following Regulatory Guides are also relevant:31. The Enforcement Guide (EG)32.
SUP 16.4.4GRP
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see7SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:7(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FSA receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the threshold conditions (see COND 2.3); 8(2) to implement certain requirements relating
SUP 16.4.5RRP
(1) A firm must submit a report to the FSA annually, containing the information in (3) or (4) (as applicable).(2) A firm must submit the report in (1) to the FSA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(3) If a firm is not aware:(a) that it has any controllers; or(b) of any changes in the identity of its controllers since the submission of its previous report under (1); or(c) of any changes in the percentage of shares or voting power in the firm held by any controllers
PERG 8.15.3GRP
The FSA considers that, to satisfy the condition in PERG 8.15.2G (2) that an activity be incidental to the provision of professional services, regulated activities cannot be a major part of the practice of the professional firm. The FSA also considers that the following further factors are relevant.(1) The scale of regulated activity in proportion to other professional services provided.(2) Whether and to what extent services that are regulated activities are held out as separate
PERG 8.15.7GRP
The article 55A exemption should enable professional firms to issue brochures, websites and other non-real time financial promotions without any need for approval by an authorised person. This is provided the financial promotion does not also contain an invitation or inducement relating to regulated activities other than those covered by the Part XX exemption. In this respect, it should be noted that, unlike article 55, the article 55A exemption does not extend to activities which
FEES 6.4.5RRP
Unless FEES 6.3.22 R applies, the FSCS must calculate a participant firm's share of a base costs levy by:(1) identifying the base costs which the FSCS has incurred, or expects to incur, in the relevant financial year of the compensation scheme, but has not yet levied;(2) calculating the amount of the participant firm's regulatory costs as a proportion of the total regulatory costs relating to all participant firms for the relevant financial year; and(3) applying the proportion
DTR 5.11.4RRP
An issuer whose registered office is in a non-EEA State whose relevant laws are considered equivalent by the FSA is exempted from the corresponding obligation in this chapter.
DTR 5.11.5GRP
The FSA maintains a published list of non-EEA States which, for the purpose of article 23.1 of the TD, are judged to have laws which lay down requirements equivalent to those imposed upon issuers by this chapter. Such issuers remain subject to the following requirements of DTR 6:(1) the filing of information with the FSA;(2) the language provisions; and(3) the dissemination of information provisions.
PR 1.1.6GRP
The following documents need to be considered together todetermine the effect of the prospectus directive:(1) Part 6 of the Act;(2) the PD Regulation;(3) these rules; and(4) the CESR recommendations.
PR 1.1.8GRP
In determining whether Part 6 of the Act, these rules andthe PD Regulation have2 been complied with, the FSA will take into account whether a person has complied with the ESMA recommendations.222
COLL 4.7.2RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager must, for each UCITS scheme which it manages, draw up a short document in English containing key investor information (a "key investor information document") for investors.(2) The words "key investor information" must be clearly stated in this document. (3) Key investor information must include appropriate information about the essential characteristics of the UCITS scheme which is to be provided to investors so that they are reasonably able to understand
COLL 4.7.7RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager must keep up to date the essential elements of the key investor information document for each UCITS scheme which it manages.(2) An authorised fund manager must file the key investor information document for each UCITS scheme which it manages, and any amendments thereto, with the FSA.(3) An authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS must, in addition to (1) and (2), file the key investor information of its master UCITS, and any amendments thereto,
GEN 1.2.1GRP
The purpose of GEN 1.2.2 R is to prevent clients being misled about the extent to which the FSA has approved a firm's affairs.
DTR 2.2.9GRP
(1) Subject to the limited ability to delay release of inside information to the public provided by DTR 2.5.1 R, an issuer is required to notify, via a RIS, all inside information in its possession as soon as possible.(2) If an issuer is faced with an unexpected and significant event, a short delay may be acceptable if it is necessary to clarify the situation. In such situations a holding announcement should be used where an issuer believes that there is a danger of inside information
DTR 2.2.10GRP
The FSA is aware that many issuers provide unpublished information to third parties such as analysts, employees, credit rating agencies, finance providers and major shareholders, often in response to queries from such parties. The fact that information is unpublished does not in itself make it inside information. However, unpublished information which amounts to inside information is only permitted to be disclosed in accordance with the disclosure rules and an issuer must ensure
PERG 7.5.3GRP
In many cases it will be clear whether or not a publication or service benefits from the exclusion. A publication or service may provide reports on such a wide range of matters that it is not possible to say that it has any purpose other than to provide coverage of a wide range of matters. Alternatively, it may be clear that the principal purpose of a publication or service is something other than those specified in the article 54 exclusion. Examples of cases where, in the FSA's
PERG 7.5.4GRP
It is only where there are grounds to think that there is a significant doubt as to the principal purpose of a publication or service that the question of whether or not to apply to the FSA for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order is expected to arise. For example, this may happen where a publication or service has several significant purposes and one of them is a disqualifying purpose referred to in the exclusion in article 54. It may on occasion be
CASS 6.4.2GRP
Firms are reminded of the client's best interests rule, which requires the firm to act honestly, fairly and professionally in accordance with the best interests of their clients. An example of what is generally considered to be such conduct, in the context of stock lending activities involving retail clients is that:(1) the firm ensures that relevant collateral is provided by the borrower in favour of the client;(2) the current realisable value of the safe custody asset2 and
REC 1.2.2GRP
(1) Most of the provisions in this sourcebook are marked with a G (to indicate guidance) or an R (to indicate a rule). Quotations from UK2 statute or statutory instruments are marked with the letters "UK"2 unless they form part of a piece of guidance. Quotations from the directly applicable MiFID Regulation are marked with the letters "EU". 2For a discussion of the status of provisions marked with a letter, see Chapter 6 of the Reader's Guide.21(2) Where the guidance states that
REC 1.2.3GRP
(1) This sourcebook contains quotations from the Act, the Recognition Requirements Regulations, the RAP regulations3 and the Companies Act 1989 and the MiFID Regulation2and, where necessary, words have been added to, or substituted for, the text of these provisions to facilitate understanding.(2) The additions and substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). The omission of words within a quotation is indicated by three dots (...).(3) Any words in these quotations which
REC 2A.3.1GRP
In assessing compliance with the RAP recognition requirements, the FSA will have regard to relevant guidance in REC 2 on the equivalent requirements set out in the Recognition Requirement Regulations. The FSA may also take into account compliance by the RAP or RAP applicant with the recognition requirements (see REC 2A.2.1 UK). The FSA will not make a separate assessment of compliance with the recognition requirements during the course of examining an application to become an
REC 2A.3.2GRP

The guidance in relation to the recognition requirements in the sections of REC 2 listed in Column A of the table below applies to an RAP in relation to the equivalent RAP recognition requirements listed in Column C and (if shown) with the modifications in Column B.

Table: Guidance on RAP recognition requirements

Column A

REC 2 guidance which applies to an RAP

Column B

Modification to REC 2 guidance for an RAP

Column C

Relevant RAP recognition requirement

REC 2.2.2 G to REC 2.2.7 G (Relevant circumstances and Outsourcing)

Reg 13

REC 2.3.3 G to REC 2.3.9 G (Financial resources)

Reg 14

REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G (Suitability)

In addition to the matters set out in REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G, the FSA will have regard to whether a key individual has been allocated responsibility for overseeing the auction platform of the UK recognised body.

Reg 15

REC 2.5.3 G to REC 2.5.20 G (Systems and controls and conflicts) and REC 2.5A (Guidance on Public Interest Disclosure Act: Whistleblowing)

Reg 16 and 17(2)(f)1

REC 2.6.26 G to REC 2.6.34 G (Safeguards for investors)

Reg 17

REC 2.7.3 G to REC 2.7.4 G (Access to facilities)

The FSA shall have regard to whether an RAP provides access to bid at auctions only to those persons eligible to bid under article 18 of the auction regulation.

Reg 17(2)(a) and1 20

REC 2.8.3 G to REC 2.8.4 G (Settlement and clearing services)

Reg 17(2)(d) and 21

REC 2.9.3 G to REC 2.9.4 G (Transaction recording)

Reg 17(2)(e)

REC 2.10.3 G to REC 2.10.4 G (Financial crime and market abuse)

Reg 17(2)(g)

REC 2.11.3 G to REC 2.11.4 G (Custody)

REC 2.11.4 G is replaced with the following for an RAP:

Where an RAP arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the RAP recognition requirement in regulation 17(2)(h) of the RAP regulations (see REC 2A.2.1 UK).

Reg 17(2)(h)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G (Availability of relevant information)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G are replaced with the following for an RAP:

REC 2.12.11 G

In determining whether appropriate arrangements have been made to make relevant information available to persons engaged in dealing in emissions auction products2 the FSA may have regard to:

(1) the extent to which auction bidders are able to obtain information in a timely fashion about the terms of those emissions auction products2 and the terms on which they will be auctioned, either through accepted channels for dissemination of information or through other regularly and widely accessible communication media;

(2) what restrictions, if any, there are on the dissemination of relevant information to auction bidders; and

(3) whether relevant information is, or can be, kept to restricted groups of persons in such a way as to facilitate or encourage market abuse.

REC 2.12.12 G

An RAP does not need to maintain its own arrangements for providing information on the terms of emissions auction products2 to auction bidders where it has made adequate arrangements for other persons to do so on its behalf or there are other effective and reliable arrangements for this purpose.

222

Reg 17(2)(c)

REC 2.13.3 G to REC 2.13.6 G (Promotion and maintenance of standards)

Reg 18

REC 2.14.3 G to REC 2.14.6 G (Rules and consultation)

Reg 19

REC 2.15.3 G to REC 2.15.6 G (Discipline)

Reg 22

REC 2.16.3 G to REC 2.16.4 G (Complaints)

Reg 23
PR 2.5.2UKRP

Section 87B(1) of the Act sets out when the FSA may authorise the omission of information from a prospectus:

(1)

The [FSA] may authorise the omission from a prospectus of any information, the inclusion of which would otherwise be required, on the ground –

(a)

that its disclosure would be contrary to the public interest;

(b)

that its disclosure would be seriously detrimental to the issuer, provided that the omission would be unlikely to mislead the public with regard to any facts or circumstances which are essential for an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2); or

(c)

that the information is only of minor importance for a specific offer to the public or admission to trading on a regulated market and unlikely to influence an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).
PR 2.5.3RRP
A request to the FSA to authorise the omission of specific information must:(1) be in writing from the applicant;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for its omission; and(3) state why in the applicant's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 87B(1) of the Act applies.
SUP 12.2.3GRP
As long as the conditions in section 39 of the Act are satisfied, any person, other than an authorised person, may become an appointed representative, including a body corporate, a partnership or an individual in business on his own account. However, an appointed representative cannot be an authorised person under the Act; that is, it cannot be exempt for some regulated activities and authorised for others.
SUP 12.2.16GRP
(1) 12A tied agent is a person who acts for and under the responsibility of a MiFID investment firm (or a third country investment firm) in respect of MiFID business (or the equivalent business of the third country investment firm). Most tied agents appointed by firms are also appointed representatives.(2) Unless otherwise provided, this chapter applies to a firm that appoints a tied agent that is an appointed representative in the same way as it applies to the appointment of