Related provisions for PERG 7.7.5

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SUP 2.4.2GRP
The FSA uses mystery shopping to help it protect consumers. This may be by seeking information about a particular practice across a range of firms (SUP 2.4.3 G (1)) or the practices of a particular firm (SUP 2.4.3 G (2)). One of the risks consumers face is that they may be sold financial products which are inappropriate to them. A problem in protecting consumers from this risk is that it is very difficult to establish after the event what a firm has said to a 'genuine' consumer
SUP 2.4.3GRP
The FSA may carry out mystery shopping:(1) together with a programme of visits to obtain information about a particular practice, looking at a particular issue across a range of firms, when the FSA may advise the firms of the issues beforehand; the practice being scrutinised may be that of firms or a class of firms in carrying on regulated activities or ancillary activities or in communicating or approving financial promotions; (2) together with focused visits (concentrating on
SUP 2.4.4GRP
Telephone calls and meetings held during mystery shopping will be recorded. The FSA expects that any mystery shopping it arranges will be conducted in accordance with the Market Research Society Code of Practice.
SUP 2.4.5GRP
1The FSA may use the information it obtains from mystery shopping in support of both its supervisory functions and its enforcement functions. This includes sharing any information so obtained with firms and approved persons.
COND 1.2.1GRP
COND gives guidance on the threshold conditions set out in or under Schedule 6 to the Act (Threshold conditions). The threshold conditions represent the minimum conditions which a firm is required to satisfy, and continue to satisfy, in order to be given and to retain Part IV permission.
COND 1.2.2GRP
(1) Under section 41(2) of the Act (The threshold conditions), in giving or varying a Part IV permission or imposing or varying any requirement, the FSA must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part IV
COND 1.2.3GRP
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, section 45 of the Act (Variation etc. on the FSA's own initiative) states that the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power. Use of the FSA'sown-initiative power is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FSA's own initiative and intervention against incoming firms)1.1(2) If, when exercising its
LR 13.2.1RRP
A listed company must not circulate or publish a circular unless it has been approved by the FSA.
LR 13.2.4RRP
The following documents (to the extent applicable) must be lodged with the FSA in final form before it will approve a circular:(1) a Sponsors Declaration for the Production of a Circular completed by the sponsor;(2) for a class 1 circular or related party circular, a letter setting out any items of information required by this chapter that are not applicable in that particular case;(3) the sponsor's Conflicts Declaration2; and(4) any other document that the FSA has sought in advance
LR 13.2.7RRP
If a circular submitted for approval is amended, two copies of amended drafts must be resubmitted, marked to show changes made to conform with FSA comments and to indicate other changes.
LR 13.2.8GRP
The FSA will approve a circular if it is satisfied that the requirements of this chapter are satisfied.
LR 13.2.9GRP
The FSA will only approve a circular between 9a.m. and 5.30p.m. on a business day (unless alternative arrangements are made in advance).Note: LR 9.6.1 R requires a company to forward to the FSA two copies of all circulars issued (whether or not they require approval) for publication on the document viewing facility.
SUP 15.4.1RRP
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FSA within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic responsibility
SUP 15.4.2GRP
SUP 15.4.1 R is not made under the powers conferred on the FSA by Part V of the Act (Performance of Regulated Activities). A person notified to the FSA under SUP 15.4.1 R is not subject to the Statements of Principle or Code of Practice for Approved Persons, unless he is also an approved person.
SUP 15.4.3GRP
(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.2(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).2(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FSA'sinformation technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until such time as facilities for
SUP 15.4.3AGRP
(1) If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.4.3R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.2(2) Where SUP 15.4.3R (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.2
SUP 15.4.4GRP
If adverse information is revealed about a person notified to the FSA under SUP 15.4.1 R, the FSA may exercise its own-initiative power against the firm (see SUP 7 (Individual requirements)).
DEPP 6.6.1GRP
(1) The FSA attaches considerable importance to the timely submission by firms of reports. This is because the information that they contain is essential to the FSA's assessment of whether a firm is complying with the requirements and standards of the regulatory system and to the FSA's understanding of that firm's business.(2) DEPP 6.6.1 G to DEPP 6.6.5 G set out the FSA's policy in relation to financial penalties for late submission of reports and is in addition to the FSA's
DEPP 6.6.2GRP
In addition to the factors considered in Step 2 for cases against firms (DEPP 6.5A) and cases against individuals (DEPP 6.5B),1 the following considerations are relevant.1(1) In general, the FSA's approach to disciplinary action arising from the late submission of a report will depend upon the length of time after the due date that the report in question is submitted.(2) If the person concerned is an individual, it is open to him to make representations to the FSA as to why he
DEPP 6.6.3GRP
In addition, in appropriate cases, the FSA may bring disciplinary action against the approved persons within the firm's management who are ultimately responsible for ensuring that the firm's reports are completed and returned to the FSA.
DEPP 6.6.4GRP
In applying the guidance in this section, the FSA may treat a report which is materially incomplete or inaccurate as not received until it has been submitted in a form which is materially complete and accurate. For the purposes of the guidance, the FSA may also treat a report as not received where the method by which it is submitted to the FSA does not comply with the prescribed method of submission.
DEPP 6.6.5GRP
In most late reporting cases, it will not be necessary for the FSA to appoint an investigator since the fact of the breach will be clear. It follows that the FSA will not usually send the firm concerned a preliminary findings letter for late-reporting disciplinary action.
PERG 8.17.5GRP
Providing qualifying credit is a controlled activity under paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order. In the FSA's view, 'providing' means, in this context, providing as lender; an intermediary does not 'provide' qualifying credit.
PERG 8.17.13GRP
Introducers can check whether a person is an authorised person or an appointed representative by visiting the FSA's register at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/register/.If an authorised person has permission to carry on a regulated activity (which can be checked on the FSA's register) it is reasonable, in the FSA's view, to conclude that the authorised person carries on that activity (but not a controlled activity which is not a regulated activity). The FSA would normally expect introducers
PERG 8.17.14GRP
In the FSA's view, money payable to an introducer on his own account includes money legitimately due to him for services rendered to the borrower, whether in connection with the introduction or otherwise. It also includes sums payable in connection with transfer of property to an introducer (for example, a housebuilder) by a borrower. For example, article 28B allows a housebuilder to receive the purchase price on a property that he sells to a borrower, whom he previously introduced
PERG 8.17.15GRP
In the FSA's view, the provision of details of fees or commission referred to in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(ii) does not require an introducer to provide an actual sum to the borrower, where it is not possible to calculate the full amount due prior to the introduction. This may arise in cases where the fee or commission is a percentage of the eventual loan taken out and the amount of the required loan is not known at the time of the introduction. In these cases, it would be sufficient
PERG 8.17.16GRP
In the FSA's view, the information condition in PERG 8.17.12G (2)(b)(iii) requires the introducer to indicate to the borrower any other advantages accruing to him as a result of ongoing arrangements with N relating to the introduction of borrowers. This may include, for example, indirect benefits such as office space, travel expenses, subscription fees. This and other relevant information may, where appropriate, be provided on a standard form basis to the borrower. The FSA would
DEPP 6.5C.1GRP
1The FSA will seek to deprive an individual of the financial benefit derived as a direct result of the market abuse (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FSA will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit.
DEPP 6.5C.2GRP
(1) The FSA will determine a figure dependent on the seriousness of the market abuse and whether or not it was referable to the individual’s employment. This reflects the FSA’s view that where an individual has been put into a position where he can commit market abuse because of his employment the fine imposed should reflect this by reference to the gross amount of all benefits derived from that employment.(2) In cases where the market abuse was referable to the individual’s employment,
DEPP 6.5C.3GRP
(1) The FSA may increase or decrease the amount of the financial penalty arrived at after Step 2, but not including any amount to be disgorged as set out in Step 1, to take into account factors which aggravate or mitigate the market abuse. Any such adjustments will be made by way of a percentage adjustment to the figure determined at Step 2.(2) The following list of factors may have the effect of aggravating or mitigating the market abuse:(a) the conduct of the individual in
DEPP 6.5C.4GRP
(1) If the FSA considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the market abuse, or others, from committing further or similar abuse then the FSA may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FSA may do this include:(a) where the FSA considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the market abuse to meet its objective of credible deterrence;(b) where previous FSA action in respect of similar market abuse
DEPP 6.5C.5GRP
The FSA and the individual on whom a penalty is to be imposed may seek to agree the amount of any financial penalty and other terms. In recognition of the benefits of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the amount of the financial penalty which might otherwise have been payable will be reduced to reflect the stage at which the FSA and the individual concerned reached an agreement. The settlement discount does not apply to the disgorgement of any benefit calculated at Step
REC 6A.2.1GRP
1Under section 312B of the Act, the FSA may prohibit an EEA market operator from making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market, or multilateral trading facility, operated by the operator if:(1) the FSA has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator has contravened a relevant requirement, and(2) the FSA has first complied with sections 312B(3) to (9) of the Act.
REC 6A.2.3GRP
The procedure the FSA will follow if it is to exercise this prohibition power is set out in sections 313B(3) to (9) of the Act.
REC 6A.2.4GRP
If the FSA exercises this prohibition power it must at the earliest opportunity notify the Commission and ESMA4 of the action taken in relation to the operator.
REC 6A.2.5GRP
The operator's exempt person status ceases to apply if the FSA exercises this prohibition power.
REC 6A.2.6GRP
The operator's right to make arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to, or use of, a regulated market, or multilateral trading facility, operated by the operator may be reinstated (together with its exempt person status) if the FSA is satisfied that the contravention which led the FSA to exercise its prohibition power has been remedied.
GEN 4.5.3RRP
A firm must not indicate or imply that it is authorised by the FSA in respect of business for which it is not so authorised.
GEN 4.5.4RRP
A firm must not indicate or imply that it is regulated or otherwise supervised by the FSA in respect of business for which it is not regulated by the FSA.
GEN 4.5.6GRP
(1) Neither an incoming EEA firm nor an incoming Treaty firm is authorised by the FSA when acting as such.(2) It is likely to be misleading for a firm that is not authorised by the FSA to state or imply that it is so authorised. It is also likely to be misleading for a firm to state or imply that a client will have recourse to the Financial Ombudsman Service or the FSCS where this is not the case.(3) As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading
DEPP 6A.2.1GRP
The FSA will consider the full circumstances of each case and determine whether it is appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction. The FSA will usually make this decision at the same time as it determines whether or not to impose a financial penalty or a public censure.
DEPP 6A.2.2GRP
The FSA will take into account relevant factors in deciding whether it is appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction. These may include factors listed in DEPP 6.2. There may also be other factors, not listed in DEPP 6.2, that are relevant.
DEPP 6A.2.3GRP
The FSA will consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction where it believes that such action will be a more effective and persuasive deterrent than the imposition of a financial penalty alone. This is likely to be the case where the FSA considers that direct and visible action in relation to a particular breach is necessary. Examples of circumstances where the FSA may consider it appropriate to impose a suspension or restriction include:(1) where the FSA (or
DEPP 6A.2.4GRP
The FSA expects usually to suspend or restrict a person from carrying out activities directly linked to the breach. However, in certain circumstances the FSA may also suspend or restrict a person from carrying out activities that are not directly linked to the breach, for example, where an authorised person's relevant business area no longer exists or has been restructured.
REC 2.13.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6

2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE].

(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FSA],with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act.

REC 2.13.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body is able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body seeks to promote and encourage, through its rules, practices and procedures, conduct in regulated activities which is consistent with the Code of Market Conduct (see MAR 1) and with any other codes of conduct, rules or principles relating
REC 2.13.4GRP
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FSA and other appropriate bodies, the FSA may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FSA and other appropriate bodies.
REC 2.13.5GRP
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FSA and other appropriate bodies, the FSA may have regard to:(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FSA in the exercise of its functions;(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FSA or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues enquiries
PERG 9.7.2GRP
The characteristics that a reasonable investor can be expected to have will inform the use of judgment required by the 'expectation test' and the 'satisfaction test'. These tests relate to the investor's ability to realise an investment within a reasonable period and to do so on the basis of the net value of its assets. In the FSA's view, the characteristics of the reasonable investor include:(1) sound judgment based on good sense;(2) some knowledge of, and possibly experience
PERG 9.7.3GRP
The reasonable investor is a hypothetical investor. The implications of this are that the test does not relate to actual investment by a particular person at a particular time or in relation to a particular issue of any class of shares or securities. In the FSA's view, what underlies the test is what a reasonable investor would think he was getting into if he were contemplating investment in a particular body corporate. In addition, because the investor is hypothetical, the investment
PERG 9.7.5GRP
After an initial assessment, however, the FSA's view is that subsequent applications of the investment condition could produce a different result, but only if there is a change to the constitution or practice of the body corporate which is significant and sustained. For example, this may happen if there is a change in the body corporate's published intentions or regular practices. As the Economic Secretary to the Treasury said in parliamentary debate when commenting on the definition,
PERG 9.7.6GRP
Section 236(3) uses the words "the investor would, if he were to participate in the scheme". This is consistent with the fact that the reasonable investor is hypothetical. But applying the test at this early stage makes it clear that there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could base the expectation in section 236(3)(a). And on which he could be satisfied on the matters in section 236(3)(b). In the FSA's view, this requires, for example,
LR 10.8.1GRP
(1) A listed company in severe financial difficulty may find itself with no alternative but to dispose of a substantial part of its business within a short time frame to meet its ongoing working capital requirements or to reduce its liabilities. Due to time constraints it may not be able to prepare a circular and convene an extraordinary general meeting to obtain prior shareholder approval.(2) The FSA may modify the requirements in LR 10.5 to prepare a circular and to obtain shareholder
LR 10.8.2GRP
The listed company should demonstrate to the FSA that it could not reasonably have entered into negotiations earlier to enable shareholder approval to be sought.
LR 10.8.3GRP
The following documents should be provided in writing to the FSA:(1) confirmation from the listed company that:(a) negotiation does not allow time for shareholder approval;(b) all alternative methods of financing have been exhausted and the only option remaining is to dispose of a substantial part of their business;(c) by taking the decision to dispose of part of the business to raise cash, the directors are acting in the best interests of the company and shareholders as a whole
LR 10.8.4GRP
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
LR 10.8.6GRP
(1) The FSA will wish to examine the documents referred to in LR 10.8.3 G (including the RIS announcement) before it grants the modification and before the announcement is released.(2) The documents should ordinarily be lodged with the FSA:(a) in draft form at least five clear business days before the terms of the transaction are agreed; and(b) in final form on the day on which approval is sought.
DTR 1A.2.1RRP
(1) The FSA may dispense with, or modify, the transparency rules in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the terms of directives and the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If an issuer, or other person has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FSA immediately it becomes aware of any matter which is material to the
DTR 1A.2.2RRP
(1) An application to the FSA to dispense with or modify, a transparency rule must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FSA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
DTR 1A.2.4GRP

An issuer or other person should consult with the FSA at the earliest possible stage if they:

  1. (1)

    are in doubt about how the transparency rules apply in a particular situation; or

  2. (2)

    consider that it may be necessary for the FSA to dispense with or modify a transparency rule.

DTR 1A.2.5GRP

1Where a transparency rule refers to consultation with the FSA, submissions should be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency.

Address for correspondence

Note: The FSA's address for correspondence in relation to the disclosure rules is:

Company Monitoring Team

Markets Division

The Financial Services Authority

25 The North Colonnade

Canary Wharf

London E14 5HS

Fax: 020 7066 8368

COLL 7.3.1GRP
(1) The winding up of an ICVC may be carried out under this section instead of by the court provided the ICVC is solvent and the steps required under regulation 21 the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company) are fulfilled. This section lays down the procedures to be followed and the obligations of the ACD and any other directors of the ICVC. (2) The termination of a sub-fund may be carried out4 under this section, instead of by the
COLL 7.3.3GRP

This table belongs to COLL 7.3.1 G (4) (Explanation of COLL 7.3)3

3

Summary of the main steps in winding up a solvent ICVC or terminating a sub-fund3 under FSA rules, assuming FSA approval.

Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FSA under regulation 21 of OEIC Regulations

E = commencement of winding up or termination

W/U = winding up

FAP = final accounting period (COLL 7.3.8 R(4))

Step number

Explanation

When

COLL rule (unless stated otherwise)

1

Commence preparation of solvency statement

N-28 days

7.3.5 (2)

2

Send audited solvency statement to the FSA with copy to depositary

By N + 21 days

7.3.5 (4) and (5)

3

Receive the FSA approval

N + one month

Regulation 21 of OEIC Regulations

4

Normal business ceases; notify unitholders3

3

E

7.3.6

5

Realise proceeds, wind up, instruct depositary accordingly

ASAP after E

7.3.7

6

Prepare final account or termination account & have account audited

On completion of W/U or termination

7.3.8

7

Send final account or termination account and auditor's report to the FSA & unitholders

Within 43months of FAP

3

7.3.8(6)

8

Request FSA to revoke relevant authorisation order or update its records4

On completion of W/U or termination4

7.3.7(9)

COLL 7.3.4RRP
(1) An ICVC must not be wound up except:44(a) under this section; or4(b) as an unregistered company under Part V of the Insolvency Act 1986.4(1A) 4A sub-fund must not:(a) be terminated except under this section; or(b) wound up except under Part V of the Insolvency Act 1986 (as modified by regulation 33C of the OEIC Regulations) as an unregistered company.(2) An ICVC must not be wound up or a sub-fund terminated4 under this section if there is a vacancy in the position of ACD.
COLL 7.3.5RRP
(1) Before notice is given to the FSA under regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations of the proposals referred to in COLL 7.3.4 R (3), the directors must make a full enquiry into the ICVC's or, in the case of termination of a sub-fund, the sub-fund's4 affairs, business and property4 to determine whether the ICVC or the sub-fund4 will be able to meet all its liabilities. (2) The ACD must then, based on the results of this enquiry, prepare a statement either: (a) confirming that the
COLL 7.3.7RRP
(1) [deleted]44(2) The ACD must, as soon as practicable after winding up or termination has commenced, cause the scheme property to be realised and the liabilities of the ICVC or the sub-fund to be met out of the proceeds.(3) The ACD must instruct the depositary how such proceeds (until utilised to meet liabilities or make distributions to unitholders) must be held and those instructions must be prepared with a view to the prudent protection of creditors and unitholders against
COLL 7.3.8RRP
(1) Once the ICVC's affairs are wound up or termination of the sub-fund has been completed (including distribution or provision for distribution in accordance with COLL 7.3.7 R (5)),3 the ACD must prepare an account of the winding up or termination showing: 3(a) how it has been conducted; and(b) how the scheme property has been disposed of. (2) The account in (1) must be, if there is: (a) more than one director, approved by the board of directors and be signed on their behalf
COLL 7.3.13RRP
(1) If: (a) during the course, or as a result, of the enquiry referred to in COLL 7.3.5 R (1) (Solvency statement), the directors become of the opinion that it will not be possible to provide the confirmation referred to in (2)(a) of that rule; or(b) after winding up or termination has commenced, the ACD becomes of the opinion that the ICVC or the sub-fund4 will be unable to meet all its liabilities within twelve months of the date of the statement provided under (a) of COLL 7.3.5
REC 3.6.1RRP
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
REC 3.6.4RRP
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FSA notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.
REC 3.6.6RRP
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FSA notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
REC 3.6.7GRP
The purpose of REC 3.6.6 R is to ensure that the FSA is informed of changes to agreements which specify the arrangements by which a UK recognised body will be governed or by which important decisions will be taken within that body. It is not intended to cover any agreement by which someone is appointed to be a key individual or which covers the terms and conditions of service in such an appointment.
GEN 6.1.1RRP
1This chapter applies to every firm, but only with respect to business that can be regulated under section 138of the Act (General rule-making power).
GEN 6.1.4RRP
In this chapter 'financial penalty' means a financial penalty that the FSA has imposed, or may impose, under the Act. It does not include a financial penalty imposed by any other body.
GEN 6.1.4ARRP
2No firm, except a sole trader, may pay a financial penalty imposed by the FSA on a present or former employee, director or partner of the firm or of an affiliated company.
GEN 6.1.7GRP
GEN 6.1.4A R,2GEN 6.1.5 R and GEN 6.1.6 R do not prevent a firm or member from entering into, arranging, claiming on or making any payment under a contract of insurance which indemnifies any person against all or part of the costs of defending FSA enforcement action or any costs they may be ordered to pay to the FSA.
LR 19.4.3RRP
(1) An issuer'slistedsecuritised derivatives must be admitted to trading on a RIE's market for listed securities at all times.(2) An issuer must inform the FSA in writing as soon as possible if it has:(a) requested a RIE to admit or re-admit any of its listedsecuritised derivatives to trading; or(b) requested a RIE to cancel or suspend trading of any of its listedsecuritised derivatives; or(c) been informed by a RIE that the trading of any of its listedsecuritised derivatives
LR 19.4.7RRP
If an issue is guaranteed by an unlisted company, an issuer must submit the guarantor's accounts to the FSA.
LR 19.4.11AGRP
1An issuer, whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market, should consider its obligations under DTR 4 (Periodic financial reporting), DTR 5 (Vote holder and issuer notification rules) and DTR 6 (Access to information).
LR 19.4.11BRRP
1For the purposes of compliance with the transparency rules, the FSA considers that an issuer of securitised derivatives should comply with DTR 4, DTR 5 and DTR 6 as if it were an issuer of debt securities as defined in the transparency rules.
PERG 5.11.6GRP
(1) The removal of the exclusion for groups and joint enterprises in article 69 of the Regulated Activities Order (Groups and joint enterprises) may have implications for a company providing services for:(a) other members of its group; or(b) other participants in a joint enterprise of which it is a participant.(2) Such companies might typically provide risk or treasury management or administration services which may include regulated activities relating to a contract of insurance.
PERG 5.11.9GRP
Article 67 excludes from the activities of dealing as agent, arranging (bringing about) deals in investments, making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments, assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance and advising on investments, any activity which:(1) is carried on in the course of carrying on any profession or business which does not otherwise consist of the carrying on of regulated activities in the United Kingdom; and(2) may
PERG 5.11.11GRP
Article 67 may also apply to activities relating to assignments of insurance policies, as, in the FSA's view, article 2.3 of the IMD applies essentially to the creation of new contracts of insurance and not the assignment of rights under existing policies. As such, where a solicitor or licensed conveyancer arranges an assignment of a contract of insurance, the exclusion in article 67 remains of potential application. For similar reasons, trustees advising on or arranging assignments
PERG 5.11.13GRP
Article 72B (see also PERG 5.3.7 G (Connected contracts of insurance)) may be of relevance to persons who supply non-motor goods or provide services related to travel in the course of carrying on a profession or business which does not otherwise consist of carrying on regulated activities. In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may carry on regulated activities in the course of the carrying on of a profession or business does not, of itself, mean that the profession or business
PERG 5.11.14GRP
In the FSA's view, the liability risks referred to in PERG 5.11.13G (5) cover risks in relation to liabilities that the policyholder might have to others (that is, third party claims). Many policies will provide this sort of cover and so fall outside the scope of the exclusion. For example, a policy that covers the cost of unauthorised calls made when a mobile telephone is stolen includes 'liability risks' and would not be a 'connected contract of insurance'. By contrast, travel
PERG 5.11.15GRP
In the FSA's view, the condition in PERG 5.11.13G (7) is likely to be satisfied where the insurance mediation activities relate to a standard form contract of insurance, the terms of which (other than the cost of the premium) are not subject to negotiation.
SUP 16.10.2GRP
Standing data is used by the FSA:(1) to ensure that a firm is presented with the correct regulatory return when it seeks to report electronically;(2) in order to communicate with a firm;(3) as the basis for some sections of the FSA Register; and (4) in order to carry out thematic analysis across sectors and groups of firms.
SUP 16.10.4RRP
(1) Within 30 business days of its accounting reference date, a firm must check the accuracy of its standing data through the relevant section of the FSA website.(2) [paragraph suspended by FSA 2004/79]5(3) If any standing data is incorrect, the firm must submit5 the corrected standing data to the FSA,5 using the appropriate form set out in SUP 15 Ann 3 and in accordance with SUP 16.10.4A R.55
SUP 16.10.4ARRP
(1) 5A firm other than a credit union must submit any corrected standing data under SUP 16.10.4R (3) online at www.fsa.gov.uk using the FSA's ONAsystem.(2) A credit union must submit any corrected standing data under SUP 16.10.4R (3) in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit corrected standing data online under (1), if the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable
SUP 16.10.4BGRP
5If the FSA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FSA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out inSUP 16.10.4AR (3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.
SUP 16.10.5GRP
The standing data is made available to the firm when the firm logs into the appropriate section of the FSA website. The firm should check the standing data and send any corrections to the FSA. The FSA's preferred method of receiving corrections to standing data is by the online forms available at the FSA's website.2