Related provisions for SUP 9.4.3
161 - 180 of 348 items.
The RAP
recognition requirements must be satisfied by an RAP applicant for recognition to be granted.
These requirements apply both on initial recognition and throughout the period
that RAP status is held. Therefore,
the term RAP in the guidance should be understood to also refer
to an applicant where appropriate and where not otherwise stated.
(1) Under section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition), no person may carry on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom, or purport to do so, unless he is an authorised person, or he is an exempt person in relation to that activity.(2) A person will be an exempt person if he satisfies the conditions in section 39(1) of the Act, guidance on which is given in SUP 12.2.2 G. A person who is exempt as a result of satisfying these conditions is referred to in the Act as an appointed
(1) 1This section applies to the authorised fund manager and the depositary of a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF and to an ICVC which is a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF.(2) Where this section refers to:(a) a rule or guidance in COLL 5.1 to COLL 5.6, these rules and guidance, and any rules and guidance to which they refer, must be read as if a reference to a UCITS scheme or non-UCITS retail scheme were a reference to a non-UCITS retail scheme operating
The following rules and guidance in COLL 5.6 (Investment powers and borrowing limits for non-UCITS retail schemes) apply to the authorised fund manager and the depositary of a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF and to an ICVC which is a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF:(1) COLL 5.6.3 R;(2) COLL 5.6.5 R to 5.6.6 R;(3) COLL 5.6.8 R to 5.6.9 R; and(4) COLL 5.6.11 R to 5.6.24 R.
It is for the committee of management of a friendly society to decide whether to recommend an amalgamation or a transfer of engagements to the society's members. This section provides some guidance on the procedures to be followed and the information to be provided to a friendly society's members so that they are appropriately informed before they exercise their right to vote on the proposals.
The financial information provided under SUP 18.4.13 G would normally contain comparative statements of balance sheets at the same date, and include main investments, reserves and funds or technical provisions, with details of the number of members of each participant as at the balance sheet date and the premium income of the relevant fund of each participant during the financial year to which the balance sheet relates. SUP 18.4.15 G to SUP 18.4.18 G give further guidance on the
3(1) This sourcebook applies to activities carried out in respect of four5 types of product: regulated mortgage contracts (which includes lifetime mortgages), home purchase plans, home reversion plans and regulated sale and rent back agreements.5 Together, these products are referred to as home finance transactions.355(2) Lifetime mortgages and home reversion plans are together referred to as equity release transactions.3(3) The application of most of this sourcebook is expressed
638This chapter contains rules and guidance on how respondents should deal promptly and fairly with complaints in respect of business carried on from establishments in the United Kingdom,11 by certain branches of firms in the EEA or by certain EEA firms carrying out activities in the United Kingdom under the freedom to provide cross border services.11 It is also relevant to those who may wish to make a complaint or refer it to the Financial Ombudsman Service.
This part of the guidance deals with:(1) exclusions which are disapplied where the regulated activity relates to contracts of insurance;(2) exclusions which are disapplied where a person carries on insurance mediation; and(3) the following exclusions applying to more than one regulated activity:(a) activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business (article 67 (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business));(b) activities
1An actuary appointed to perform the with-profits actuary function must:(1) advise the firm's management, at the level of seniority that is reasonably appropriate, on key aspects of the discretion to be exercised affecting those classes of the with-profits business of the firm in respect of which he has been appointed;(2) where the firm is a realistic basis life firm advise the firm's governing body as to whether the assumptions used to calculate the with-profits insurance component
A UCITS qualifier should refer to COLLG or to the following sections of COLL for requirements for recognised schemes4:44(1) COLL 9.2.1 G for guidance on notifications;4(2) COLL 9.2.1 G for guidance on information and documentation requirements; and4(3) COLL 9.4 which includes rules4on what facilities need to be maintained.44
(1) This paragraph sets out guidance on BIPRU 4.6.2 R so far as it relates to the boundary between retail exposures and corporate exposures.(2) In deciding what steps are reasonable for the purposes of BIPRU 4.6.2 R (1), a firm may take into account complexity and cost, as well as the materiality of the impact upon its capital calculation. A firm should be able to demonstrate to the FSA that it has complied with the obligation to take reasonable steps under BIPRU 4.6.2 R (1) in
(1) This paragraph contains guidance on the level of differentiation referred to in BIPRU 4.6.7 R.(2) It is important that a firm achieves adequate segmentation to deliver robust estimates of LGD and conversion factors, as well as PD. Whether the focus should be more on exposure size or collateral type is a question of fact for the particular circumstances in which the assignment of exposures to grades or pools occurs. Typically the FSA would expect both to be important.(3) A
(1) A transaction in a derivative must:(a) be in an approved derivative; or(b) be one which complies with COLL 5.2.23 R (OTC transactions in derivatives).(2) The underlying of a transaction in a derivative must consist of any one or more of the following to which the scheme is dedicated:(a) transferable securities permitted under COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(a) to (c) and COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(e)7;(b) approved money-market instruments7 permitted underCOLL 5.2.8 R (3)(a) to COLL 5.2.8 R (3)(d)7;77(c)
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a
(1) A firm should be able to demonstrate that its decisions are consistent with an assessment of its financial condition and future prospects. In particular, practices by which remuneration is paid for potential future revenues whose timing and likelihood remain uncertain should be evaluated carefully and the governing body or remuneration committee (or both) should work closely with the firm's risk function in evaluating the incentives created by its remuneration system.(2) The
If an unauthorised administrator makes arrangements for a mortgage administrator to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, the exclusion may cease to be available because the mortgage administrator ceases to have the required permission, or because the arrangement is terminated. The exclusion gives the unauthorised administrator a one-month grace period during which it may administer the contracts itself. If the period of administration exceeds one month, the unauthorised
The 'assumption of risk' by the provider is an important descriptive feature of all contracts of insurance. The 'assumption of risk' has the meaning in (1) and (3), derived from the case law in (2) and (4) below. The application of the 'assumption of risk' concept is illustrated in PERG 6.7.2 G (Example 2: disaster recovery business).(1) Case law establishes that the provider's obligation under a contract of insurance is an enforceable obligation to respond (usually, by providing