Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4

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COLL 6.3.4RRP
(1) An authorised fund must not have fewer than two regular valuation points in any month and if there are only two valuation points in any month, the regular valuation points must be at least two weeks apart.(2) The prospectus of a scheme must contain information about its regular valuation points for the purposes of dealing in units in accordance with COLL 4.2.5R (16) (Table: contents of the prospectus).(3) Where a scheme operates limited redemption arrangements, (1) does not
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

Short-term money market funds may value approved money-market instruments on an amortised cost basis.7

[Note: paragraph 21 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FSA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FSA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FSA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FSA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3 R (1) (Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FSA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.

COLL 6.3.12GRP
(1) In determining the appropriate manner of making prices public, the authorised fund manager should ensure that:(a) a unitholder or potential unitholder can obtain the prices at a reasonable cost;(b) prices are available at reasonable times;(c) publication is consistent with the manner and frequency at which the units are dealt in1;(d) the manner of publication is disclosed in the prospectus; and(e) prices are published in a consistent manner.(2) Examples of what might be deemed
MCOB 5.6.52RRP
Where all or part of the regulated mortgage contract to which the illustration relates is an interest-only mortgage:(1) the illustration must include the sub-heading 'Cost of repaying the capital' with the following text under it:'You will still owe [insert amount of loan on an interest-only basis] at the end of the mortgage term. You will need to make separate arrangements to repay this. When comparing the payments on this mortgage with a repayment mortgage, remember to add any
MCOB 5.6.53GRP

An example of how the information required by MCOB 5.6.52 R (1), MCOB 5.6.52 R (3) and MCOB 5.6.52 R (5) may be presented is as follows:

Cost of repaying the capitalYou will still owe £Z at the end of the mortgage term. You will need to make separate arrangements to repay this. When comparing the payments on this mortgage with a repayment mortgage, remember to add any money that you may need to pay into a separate savings plan to build up a lump sum to repay this amount.

Savings plan that you do not have to take out through [insert name of mortgage lender or mortgage intermediary]

Monthly payments

XYZ savings plan (see separate product disclosure document)

£C

What you will need to pay each month including the cost of a savings plan to repay the capital

36 payments at a fixed rate currently x% followed by:

£(A+C)

264 payments at a variable rate currently y%.

£(B+C)

MCOB 5.6.82RRP
(1) If any quotations for insurance are included in the illustration in accordance with MCOB 5.6.74 R(3), MCOB 5.6.77 R(1) or MCOB 5.6.80 R, the illustration:(a) must include a brief description only of the type of insurance (full details of the insurance cover may however be provided separately); and(b) (i) must include the total price to be paid by the customer in a column on the right hand side of the illustration under the heading '[insert frequency of payments quoted] payments';
COBS 4.8.3RRP
A firm must not communicate a solicited or unsolicited financial promotion that is not in writing, to a client3 outside the firm's premises, unless the personcommunicating it:(1) only does so at an appropriate time of the day;(2) identifies himself and the firm he represents at the outset and makes clear the purpose of the communication;(3) clarifies if the client would like to continue with or terminate the communication, and terminates the communication at any time that the
MCOB 13.8.1RRP
If a customer falls into arrears, a firm must provide the customer with adequate information about the arrears in a durable medium:(1) as soon as practicable after becoming aware of that fact;(2) at quarterly intervals; and(3) before commencing action for repossession.
SUP 11.6.2RRP
After submitting a section 178 notice2under SUP 11.4.2 R orSUP 11.4.2A R2 and until the change in control occurs (or is no longer to take place), SUP 15.6.4 R and SUP 15.6.5 R apply to a UK domestic firm in relation to any information its controller or proposed controller provided to the FSA under SUP 11.5.1 R or SUP 11.3.7 D.122
MCOB 12.2.1GRP
(1) Principle 6 requires a firm to pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly. A firm is also under an obligation, as a consequence of this sourcebook's disclosure requirements,1 to make charges transparent to customers. This chapter reinforces these requirements by preventing a firm from imposing unfair and excessive charges.1(2) The level of charges under a regulated mortgage contract,2home reversion plan1 or regulated sale and rent back agreement2
ICOBS 8.1.2RRP
A rejection of a consumerpolicyholder's claim is unreasonable, except where there is evidence of fraud, if it is for:(1) non-disclosure of a fact material to the risk which the policyholder could not reasonably be expected to have disclosed; or(2) non-negligent misrepresentation of a fact material to the risk; or(3) breach of warranty or condition unless the circumstances of the claim are connected to the breach and unless (for a pure protection contract):(a) under a ‘life of
MCOB 10.2.1GRP
The purpose of this chapter is to establish the requirements for the proper calculation of the APR. As a cost measure which facilitates comparisons between similar mortgages offered on a similar basis, the APR is an integral element of the rules relating to financial promotions of qualifying credit1 and disclosure.1
SYSC 18.1.2GRP
(1) The purposes of this chapter are:(a) to remind firms of the provisions of PIDA; and(b) to encourage firms to consider adopting and communicating to workers appropriate internal procedures for handling workers' concerns as part of an effective risk management system.(2) In this chapter "worker" includes, but is not limited to, an individual who has entered into a contract of employment.
LR 9.7A.3GRP
The FSA may authorise the omission of information required by LR 9.7A.1 R or LR 9.7A.2 R if it considers that disclosure of such information would be contrary to the public interest or seriously detrimental to the listed company, provided that such omission would not be likely to mislead the public with regard to facts and circumstances, knowledge of which is essential for the assessment of the shares.1
SUP 16.2.1GRP
(1) In order to discharge its functions under the Act, the FSA needs timely and accurate information about firms. The provision of this information on a regular basis enables the FSA to build up over time a picture of firms' circumstances and behaviour.(2) Principle 11 requires a firm to deal with its regulators in an open and cooperative way, and to tell the FSA appropriately anythingof which the FSA would reasonably expect notice. The reporting requirements are part of the
COBS 16.5.1RRP
When a long-term insurer receives any indication that a retail client wishes to surrender a life policy which is of the type that may be traded on an existing secondary market for life policies, it must, before accepting a surrender, make the policyholder aware that he may be able to sell his policy instead, how he may do so and that there may be financial benefits in doing so.
PRIN 3.2.3RRP
Principles 3, 4 and (in so far as it relates to disclosing to the FSA) 11 (and this chapter) also:(1) apply with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities (for Principle 3 this is only in a prudential context); and(2) take into account any activity of other members of a group of which the firm is a member.
DTR 1.4.2RRP
If trading of an issuer's financial instruments is suspended, the issuer, any persons discharging managerial responsibilities and any connected person must continue to comply with all applicable disclosure rules.
ICOBS 5.1.4GRP
A firm should bear in mind the restriction on rejecting claims for non-disclosure (). Ways of ensuring a customer knows what he must disclose include:(1) explaining the duty to disclose all circumstances material to a policy, what needs to be disclosed, and the consequences of any failure to make such a disclosure; or(2) ensuring that the customer is asked clear questions about any matter material to the insurance undertaking.
DISP App 3.5.2GRP
For example, the complainant may have reasonably expected that the claim would have been paid where the firm failed to disclose appropriately an exclusion or limitation later relied on by the insurer to reject the claim and it should have been clear to the firm that that exclusion or limitation was relevant to the complainant.
ICOBS 4.3.2GRP
The fee disclosure requirement extends to all such fees that may be charged during the life of a policy.
DEPP 2.4.1GRP
Sections 393 (Third party rights) and 394 (Access to FSA material) of the Act confer additional procedural rights relating to third parties and to disclosure of FSA material. These rights apply in certain warning notice and decision notice cases referred to in section 392 of the Act (Application of sections 393 and 394). The cases in which these additional rights apply are identified in DEPP 2 Annex 1 by asterisks; these are generally cases in which the warning notice or decision
DISP 3.9.1ARRP
24The Ombudsman may designate members of the staff of FOS Ltd to exercise any of the powers of the Ombudsman relating to the consideration of a complaint apart from the powers to:(1) determine a complaint; or(2) authorise the disclosure of information to the FSA or any other body exercising regulatory or statutory functions.