Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4

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COBS 11.2.22RRP
A firm must provide appropriate information to its clients on its order execution policy. [Note: paragraph 2 of article 21(3) of MiFID]
SUP 11.5.1RRP

Information to be submitted by the firm (see SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a))

(1)

The name of the firm;

(2)

the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers;

(3)

a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the change in control; and5

(4)

any other information of which the FSA would reasonably expect notice.5
DISP App 3.3.12GRP
In considering the information communicated to the complainant and the complainant's information needs, the evidence to which a firm should have regard includes:(1) the complainant's individual circumstances at the time of the sale (for example, the firm should take into account any evidence of limited financial capability or understanding on the part of the complainant);(2) the complainant's objectives and intentions at the time of the sale;(3) whether, from a reasonable customer's
SUP 6.4.8GRP
The information which the FSA may request on the circumstances of the application for cancellation and the confirmations which the FSA may require a firm to provide will differ according to the nature of the firm and the activities it has Part IV permission to carry on.
SUP 12.7.7RRP
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;42the appointed representative's principal must give written notice to the FSA of that
COBS 18.5.10ERP
  1. (1)

    In order to provide adequate information to describe how the operation of the scheme is governed, an operator of an unregulated collective investment scheme should include in the scheme documents a provision about each of the items of relevant information set out in the following table (Content of scheme documents).

  2. (2)

    Compliance with (1) may be relied on as tending to establish compliance with COBS 18.5.5 R.

  3. (3)

    Contravention of (1) may be relied on as tending to establish contravention of COBS 18.5.5 R.

Table: Content of scheme documents

Content of scheme documents

The scheme documents should include provision about:

(1)

Regulator

The firm statutory status in accordance with GEN 4 Annex 1 R (Statutory status disclosure);

(2)

Services

the nature of the services that the operator will provide in relation to the scheme;

(3)

Payments for services

details of any payment for services payable by the scheme or from the property of the scheme or participants in the scheme to the operator, including where appropriate:

(a)

the basis of calculation;

(b)

how it is to be paid and collected;

(c)

how frequently it is to be paid; and

(d)

whether or not any other payment is receivable by the operator (or to its knowledge by any of its associates) in connection with any transactions effected by the operator with or for the scheme, in addition to or in lieu of any fees;

(4)

Commencement

when and how the operator is appointed;

(5)

Accounting

the arrangements for accounting to the scheme or participants in the scheme for any transaction effected;

(6)

Termination method

how the appointment of the operator may be terminated;

(7)

Complaints procedure

how to complain to the operator and a statement that the participants in the scheme may subsequently complain direct to the Financial Ombudsman Service;

(8)

Compensation

whether or not compensation may be available from the compensation scheme should the operator be unable to meet its liabilities, and information about any other applicable compensation scheme; and, for each applicable scheme, the extent and level of cover and how further information can be obtained;

(9)

Investment objectives

the investment objectives for the portfolio of the scheme;

(10)

Restrictions

(a)

any restrictions on:

(i)

the types of investments or property which may be included in the portfolio of the scheme;

(ii)

the markets on which investments or property may be acquired for the portfolio of the scheme;

(iii)

the amount or value of any one investment or asset, or on the proportion of the portfolio of the scheme which any one investment or asset or any particular kind of investment or asset may constitute; or

(b)

that there are no such restrictions;

(11)

Holding scheme assets

(a)

if it is the case, that the operator will:

(i)

hold money on behalf of the scheme or be the custodian of investments or other property of the scheme; or

(ii)

arrange for some other person to act in either capacity and, if so, whether that person is an associate of the operator identifying that person and describing the nature of any association; and

(b)

in either case:

(i)

how any money is to be deposited;

(ii)

the arrangements for recording and separately identifying registrable investments of the scheme and, where the registered holder is the operator's own nominee, that the operator will be responsible for the acts and omissions of that person;

(iii)

the extent to which the operator accepts liability for any loss of the investment of the scheme;

(iv)

the extent to which the operator or any other person mentioned in (11)(a)(ii), may hold a lien or security interest over investments of the scheme;

(v)

where investments of the scheme will be registered collectively in the same name, a statement that the entitlements of the scheme may not be identifiable by separate certificates or other physical documents of title, and that, should the operator default, any shortfall in investments of the scheme registered in that name may be shared proportionately among all schemes and any other customers of the operator whose investments are so registered;

(vi)

whether or not investments or other property of the scheme can be lent to, or deposited by way of collateral with, a third party and whether or not money can be borrowed on behalf of the scheme against the security of those investments or property and, if so, the terms upon which they may be lent or deposited;

(vii)

the arrangements for accounting to the scheme for investments of the scheme, for income received (including any interest on money and any income earned by lending investments or other property) of the scheme, and for rights conferred in respect of investments or other property of the scheme;

(viii)

the arrangements for determining the exercise of any voting rights conferred by investments of the scheme; and

(ix)

where investments of the scheme may be held by an eligible custodian outside the United Kingdom, a general statement that different settlement, legal and regulatory requirements, and different practices relating to the segregation of those investments, may apply;

(12)

Clients' money outside the United Kingdom

if it is the case, that the operator may hold the money of the scheme in a client bank account outside the United Kingdom;

(13)

Exchange rates

if a liability of the scheme in one currency is to be matched by an asset in a different currency, or if the services to be provided to the operator for the scheme may relate to an investment denominated in a currency other than the currency in which the investments of the scheme are valued, a warning that a movement of exchange rates may have a separate effect, unfavourable or favourable, on the gain or loss otherwise made on the investments of the scheme;

(14)

Stabilised investments

if it is the case, that the operator is to have the right under the schemedocuments to effect transactions in investments the prices of which may be the subject of stabilisation;

(15)

Conflict of interest and material interest

if it is the case, that the operator is to have the right under the agreement or instrument constituting the scheme to effect transactions on behalf of the scheme in which the operator has directly or indirectly a material interest (except for an interest arising solely from the participation of the operator as agent for the scheme), or a relationship of any description with another party which may involve a conflict with the operator's duty to the scheme, together with a disclosure of the nature of the interest or relationship;

(16)

Use of dealing commission

if the operator receives goods or services in addition to the execution of its customer orders in accordance with the section on the use of dealing commission, the prior disclosure required by the rule on prior disclosure (see COBS 11.6.2 R);

(17)

Acting as principal

if it is the case, that the operator may act as principal in a transaction with the scheme;

(18)

Stock lending

if it is the case, that the operator may undertake stock lending activity with or for the scheme specifying the type of assets of the scheme to be lent, the type and value of relevant collateral from the borrower and the method and amount of payment due to the scheme in respect of the lending;

(19)

Transactions involving contingent liability investments

(a)

if it is the case, that the agreement or instrument constituting the scheme allows the operator to effect transactions involving contingent liability investments for the account of the portfolio of the scheme;

(b)

if applicable, whether there are any limits on the amount to be committed by way of margin and, if so, what those limits are; and

(c)

if applicable, that the operator has the authority to effect transactions involving contingent liability investments otherwise than under the rules of a recognised investment exchange or designated investment exchange and in a contract traded thereon;

(20)

Periodic statements

(a)

the frequency of any periodic statement (this should not be less than once every 12 months) except where a periodic statement is not required (see COBS 18.5.13R); and

(b)

whether those statements will include some measure of performance, and, if so, what the basis of that measurement will be;

(21)

Valuation

the bases on which assets comprised in the portfolio of the scheme are to be valued;

(22)

Borrowings

if it is the case, that the operator may supplement the funds in the portfolio of the scheme and, if it may do so:

(a)

the circumstances in which the operator may do so;

(b)

whether there are any limits on the extent to which the operator may do so and, if so, what those limits are; and

(c)

any circumstances in which such limits may be exceeded;

(23)

Underwriting commitments

if it is the case, that the operator may for the account of the portfolio of the scheme underwrite or sub-underwrite any issue or offer for sale of securities, and:

(a)

whether there are any restrictions on the categories of securities which may be underwritten and, if so, what these restrictions are; and

(b)

whether there are any financial limits on the extent of the underwriting and, if so, what these limits are;

(24)

Investments in other collective investment schemes

whether or not the portfolio may contain units in a collective investment scheme either operated or advised by the operator or by an associate of the operator or in a collective investment scheme which is not a regulated collective investment scheme;

(25)

Investments in securities underwritten by the operator

whether or not the portfolio may contain securities of which any issue or offer for sale was underwritten, managed or arranged by the operator or by an associate of the operator during the preceding 12 months.
BIPRU 1.1.3GRP
In the main BIPRU only applies to a UCITS investment firm in respect of designated investment business (excluding scheme management activity). However BIPRU 2.2 (Internal capital adequacy standards), BIPRU 2.3 (Interest rate risk in the non-trading book), BIPRU 8 (Group risk - consolidation) and BIPRU 11 (Disclosure) apply to the whole of its business.
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FSA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FSA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FSA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FSA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FSA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FSA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FSA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FSA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FSA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.
COBS 18.2.9ERP
(1) 1In order to take reasonable care to ascertain the price which is the best available, a firm:(a) should disregard any charges and commission made by it or its agents that are disclosed to the customer under COBS 6.1.9 R (Information about costs and associated charges);(b) need not have access to competing exchanges, or to all, or a minimum number of, available price sources; but if a firm can access prices displayed by different exchanges and trading platforms and make a direct
MCOB 4.9.4GRP
(1) Firms are reminded that MCOB 1.2.7 R enables them to substitute an alternative for 'mortgage' in the initial disclosure document(except in relation to sections 6 and 8 of any initial disclosure document2 or sections 5 and 8 of any combined initial disclosure document2.22(2) MCOB 1.2.7 R also means that a firm mustamend any initial disclosure document2 so that the final sentence of prescribed text in section 4 states: 'You will receive an illustration which will tell you about
MCOB 13.4.4RRP
If a customer's account has previously fallen into arrears within the past 12 months (and at that time the customer received the disclosure required by MCOB 13.4.1 R), the arrears have been cleared and the customer's account falls into arrears on a subsequent occasion a firm must either:(1) issue a further disclosure in compliance with MCOB 13.4.1 R; or(2) provide a statement, in a durable medium, of the payments due, the actual payment shortfall, any charges incurred and the
DTR 5.1.2RRP
Subject to the exemption for certain third country issuers (DTR 5.11.6 R), a person must notify the issuer of the percentage of its voting rights he holds as shareholder or holds or is deemed to hold 5through his direct or indirect holding of financial instruments falling within 2DTR 5.3.1R (1) , subject to the exemption in DTR 5.3.1R(2),58 and DTR 5.3.1R (2A), (or a combination of such holdings) if the percentage of those voting rights2:22(1) reaches, exceeds or falls below 3%,
SUP 13A.9.5GRP
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
DISP App 3.4.2GRP
Where consideration of the root causes of complaints suggests recurring or systemic problems in the firm's sales practices for payment protection contracts, the firm should, in assessing an individual complaint, consider whether the problems were likely to have contributed to a breach or failing in the individual case, even if those problems were not referred to specifically by the complainant.
COBS 6.3.5GRP
Each of the services and costs disclosure document and3combined initial disclosure document that a firm provides to a client should be documents which the firm reasonably considers will be, or are likely to be, appropriate for the client having regard to the type of service which the firm may provide or business which the firm may conduct. 33
SUP 12.8.3RRP
If a contract with an appointed representative is terminated, or if it is amended in a way which gives rise to a requirement to notify under SUP 12.8.1R, a firm must take all reasonable steps to ensure that:(1) if the termination is by the firm, the appointed representative is notified in writing before, or if not possible, immediately on, the termination of the contract and informed that it will no longer be an exempt person for the purpose of the Act because of the contract