Related provisions for SUP App 3.6.1

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SUP 18.4.2GRP
Friendly societies are encouraged to discuss a proposed transfer or amalgamation with the FSA, at an early stage to help ensure that a workable timetable is developed. This is particularly important where there are notification requirements for supervisory authorities in EEA States other than the United Kingdom, or for an amalgamation where additional procedures are required.
SUP 18.4.9GRP
For an amalgamation the successor society, and for a transfer the transferee, may need to apply for permission, or to vary its permission, under Part IVof the Act. The FSA will need time before confirming a transferto consider whether any necessary permission or variation should be given. If the transferee is an EEA firm or a Swiss general insurance company, then confirmation will be needed from its Home State regulator that it meets the Home State's solvency margin requirements
SUP 18.4.24GRP
For a directive friendly society, if the transfer or amalgamation includes policies where the state of the risk or the state of the commitment is an EEA State other than the United Kingdom, consultation with the Host State regulator is required and SUP 18.2.25 G to SUP 18.2.29 G apply (for an amalgamation they apply as if the business of the amalgamating societies is to be transferred to the successor society). Paragraph 6(1) of Schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992 requires
SUP 18.4.25GRP
The criteria that the FSA must use in determining whether to confirm a proposed amalgamation or transfer are set out in schedule 15 to the Friendly Societies Act 1992. These criteria include that:(1) confirmation must not be given if the FSA considers that:(a) there is a substantial risk that the successor society or transferee will be unable lawfully to carry out the engagements to be transferred to it;(b) information material to the members' decision about the amalgamation or
MCOB 1.3.1RRP
Except as set out in this section, MCOB applies if the customer of a firm carrying on home finance activities2 is resident in:2(1) the United Kingdom; or(2) another EEA State, but in this case only if the activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom;at the time that the home finance activity2 is carried on.2
MCOB 1.3.4RRP
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those
SUP 13A.6.2GRP
An incoming EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer or an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation and only provides services in the United Kingdom5) 4or incoming Treaty firm carrying on business in the United Kingdom must comply with the applicable provisions (see SUP 13A.4.4 G, SUP 13A.4.6 G,5 and SUP 13A.5.4 G) and other relevant UK legislation. For example where the business includes:(1) business covered by the Consumer Credit
SUP 13A.6.3GRP
In particular, an EEA firm (other than an EEA pure reinsurer) 4or Treaty firm must comply with the applicable provisions in SUP 10 (Approved persons). An EEA firm or Treaty firm should also refer to SUP 10.1 (Application) which sets out the territorial provisions of the approved persons regime.1
SUP 13A.6.4GRP
Under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, references in section 60 of the Act (applications for approval for persons to perform controlled functions) to "the authorised person concerned" include:33(1) an EEA MiFID investment firm whose Home State regulator has given a consent notice under paragraph 13 of Schedule 3 to the Act (see SUP 13A.4.1G (1) and SUP 13A.4.2 G) or a regulator's notice under paragraph 14 of that Schedule (see SUP 13A.5.3G (1)), and which will be the authorised
BIPRU 8.3.7GRP
A firm will not be a member of a non-EEA sub-group unless it is1 also a member of a UK consolidation group. So the first step is to identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it isan institution, financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country banking or investment services undertaking);(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a BIPRU
BIPRU 8.3.12GRP
The firm should then identify each undertaking in the firm'sUK consolidation group that satisfies the following conditions:(1) it is an institution, financial institution or asset management company whose head office is outside the EEA (a third country investment services undertaking);(2) one of the following applies:(a) it is a subsidiary undertaking of a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group; or(b) a financial holding company in that UK consolidation group
BIPRU 8.3.24GRP
The examples in this section have so far assumed that the only EEA State involved is the United Kingdom. If a potential non-EEA sub-group that would otherwise be regulated by the FSA contains a potential non-EEA sub-group in another EEA State then the United Kingdom one is eliminated if the third country banking or investment services undertaking in the UK potential non-EEA sub-group and the potential non-EEA sub-group in the other EEA State are the same. The intention here is
COLL 4.3.6ARRP
(1) 3In the case of a UCITS scheme, the appointment of a new ACD of an ICVC under COLL 6.5.3 R (Appointment of an ACD) or the replacement of the manager of an AUT who proposes to retire under COLL 6.5.8 R (Retirement of a manager of an AUT) must, if in either case the new authorised fund manager is established in a different EEA State to the outgoing authorised fund manager, be treated as a significant change in accordance with COLL 4.3.6 R.(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply:(a)
COLL 4.3.7GRP
(1) Changes may be significant depending in each case on their degree of materiality and effect on the scheme and its unitholders. Consequently the authorised fund manager will need to determine whether in each case a particular change is significant in nature or not.(2) For the purpose of COLL 4.3.6 R a significant change is likely to include:(a) a change in the method of price publication;(b) a change in any operational policy such as dilution policy or allocation of payments
COLL 4.3.10RRP
(1) 3In the case of a UCITS scheme, the appointment of a new authorised fund manager as a result of:(a) in the case of an ICVC, the termination of the appointment of the previous ACD under COLL 6.5.4 R (2) or COLL 6.5.4 R (3) (Termination of appointment of an ACD); or(b) in the case of an AUT, the replacement of the manager under COLL 6.5.7 R (2) (Replacement of a manager);must, if the new authorised fund manager is established in a different EEA State to the outgoing
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FSA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by a competent authority no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made; and

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares representing, over a period of 12 months, less than 10 per cent of the number of shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the
DTR 5.1.1RRP
1In this chapter:(1) references to an2 "issuer", in relation to shares admitted to trading on a regulated market, are to an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom;2(2) references to a "non-UKissuer" are to an issuer whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market and whose Home State is the United Kingdom other than:(a) a public company within the meaning of section 4(2)7of the Companies Act 200674; and434433477(b) a company which is otherwise incorporated in,
DTR 5.1.4RRP
(1) References to a market maker are to a market maker which:(a) (subject to (3) below) is authorised by its Home State under MiFID;(b) does not intervene in the management of the issuer concerned; and (c) does not exert any influence on the issuer to buy such shares or back the share price.[Note: articles 9(5) and 9(6) of the TD](2) A market maker relying upon the exemption for shares held by it in that capacity must notify the competent authority of the Home Member State of
DTR 5.1.5RRP
(1) The following are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R except at the thresholds of 5% and 10% and above:(a) voting rights attaching to shares forming part of property belonging to another which that person lawfully manages under an agreement in, or evidenced in, writing;(b) voting rights attaching to shares which may be exercisable by a person in his capacity as the
SUP 14.3.1GRP
Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the MiFID4, UCITS Directive or Insurance Directives is exercising an EEA right and is providing cross border services into the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of those services. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accor
PERG 4.4.1GRP
Article 61(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order defines a regulated mortgage contract as a contract which, at the time it is entered into, satisfies the following conditions:(1) the contract is one where a lender provides credit to an individual or trustees (the 'borrower');(2) the contract provides for the obligation of the borrower to repay to be secured by a first legal mortgage on land (other than timeshare accommodation) in the United Kingdom; and(3) at least 40% of that
PERG 4.4.5GRP
The condition set out in PERG 4.4.1G (2) means that a regulated mortgage contract must be secured on land in the United Kingdom. Contracts which involve taking security over moveable property therefore cannot be regulated mortgage contracts. So a contract secured on a caravan will not be a regulated mortgage contract, unless the contract also involves a mortgage over the land on which the caravan stands.
BIPRU 8.4.9RRP
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or credit institution in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group .(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm must use the definition of own funds given in the CRD implementation measure of its EEA State for Article 16 of the Capital Adequacy Directive.(4)
BIPRU 8.4.10GRP
GENPRU 2.2 (Capital resources) says that a BIPRU investment firm with an investment firm consolidation waiver should calculate its capital resources on a solo basis using GENPRU 2 Annex 6 (Capital resources table for a BIPRU investment firm with a waiver from consolidated supervision). GENPRU 2 Annex 6 requires a BIPRU investment firm to deduct contingent liabilities in favour of other members of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group. Therefore BIPRU 8.4.9R (5)(b) only
BIPRU 8.4.18RRP
If a firm has an investment firm consolidation waiver, it must:(1) ensure that each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is a firm or an EEA firm has in place systems to monitor and control the sources of capital and funding of all the members in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group;(2) notify the FSA of any serious risk that could undermine the financial stability of the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group, as soon as
PERG 8.21.11GRP
Article 59 is capable of applying to financial promotions in company statements and briefings where they are accompanied by:(1) the whole or any part of the annual accounts of the company (provided it is not an open-ended investment company); or(2) any report prepared and approved by the directors of such a company under section 234 and 234A of the Companies Act 1985 or corresponding legislation in Northern Ireland or in another EEA State.In this respect, the FSA considers that
PERG 8.21.16GRP
Article 68 applies where the financial promotion relates to securities which have not yet been admitted to trading but for which application has been or is to be made. It exempts a non-real time or a solicited real-time financial promotion which a relevant EEA market requires to be communicated before admission to trading can be granted. A relevant EEA market for this purpose is a market with its head office in an EEA State and which meets the conditions in Part I of, or is specified
PERG 8.21.20GRP
Article 702 applies to a non-real time financial promotion included in:2(1) listing particulars1; or21(2) supplementary listing particulars1; or21(3) a prospectus or supplementary prospectus approved in line with Prospectus Rules or by the competent authority of another EEA State (provided the requirements of section 87H of the Act are met) – including part of such a prospectus or supplementary prospectus2; or2112(4) any other document required or permitted to be published by
SYSC 12.1.1RRP
1Subject to SYSC 12.1.2 R to SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies to each of the following which is a member of a group:(1) a firm that falls into any one or more of the following categories:(a) a regulated entity;(b) [deleted]88(c) an insurer;(d) a BIPRU firm;(e) a non-BIPRU firm that is a parent financial holding company in a Member State and is a member of a UK consolidation group; and(f) a firm subject to the rules in IPRU(INV) Chapter 14.(2) a UCITS firm, but only if
SYSC 12.1.2RRP
Except as set out in SYSC 12.1.4 R, this section applies with respect to different types of group as follows:(1) SYSC 12.1.8 R and SYSC 12.1.10 R apply with respect to all groups, including FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerates, other financial conglomerates and groups dealt with in SYSC 12.1.13 R to SYSC 12.1.16 R;(2) the additional requirements set out in SYSC 12.1.11 R and SYSC 12.1.12 R only apply with respect to FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerates; and(3) the
SYSC 12.1.4RRP
(1) This rule applies in respect of the following rules:(a) SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(b) SYSC 12.1.10R (1), so far as it relates to SYSC 12.1.8R (2);(c) SYSC 12.1.10R (2); and(d) SYSC 12.1.11 R to SYSC 12.1.15 R.(2) The rules referred to in (1):(a) only apply with respect to a financial conglomerate if it is an FSA regulated EEA financial conglomerate;(b) (so far as they apply with respect to a group that is not a financial conglomerate) do not apply with respect to a group for which
COLL 6.3.1RRP
8(1) 8This section applies to an authorised fund manager, a depositary, an ICVC and any other director of an ICVC.(2) COLL 6.3.3A R to COLL 6.3.3D R (Accounting procedures):(a) apply to:(i) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services; and(ii) an EEA UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for a
COLL 6.3.3ARRP
(1) 8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure the employment of the accounting policies and procedures referred to in SYSC 4.1.9 R (Accounting policies), so as to ensure the protection of unitholders.(2) Accounting for the scheme shall be carried out in such a way that all assets and liabilities of the scheme can be directly identified at all times.(3) If the scheme is an umbrella, separate accounts must be
COLL 6.3.3BRRP
8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must have accounting policies and procedures established, implemented and maintained, in accordance with the accounting rules of the UCITS Home State, so as to ensure that the calculation of the net asset value of each scheme it manages is accurately effected, on the basis of the accounting, and that subscription and redemption orders can be properly executed at that net asset
COLL 6.3.3DRRP
8An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must establish appropriate procedures to ensure the proper and accurate valuation of the assets and liabilities of each scheme it manages.[Note: article 8(3) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
ICOBS 6.2.3RRP
(1) If the insurance undertaking is an EEAfirm, the firm must inform the customer, before any commitment is entered into, of the EEA State in which the head office or, where appropriate, the branch with which the contract is to be concluded, is situated.(2) Any documents issued to the customer must convey the information required by this rule.[Note: article 43(2) of the Third Non-Life Directive]
ICOBS 6.2.4RRP
The contract or any other document granting cover, together with the insurance proposal where it is binding upon the customer, must state the address of the head office, or, where appropriate, of the branch of the insurance undertaking which grants the cover.[Note: article 43(2) of the Third Non-Life Directive]
DISP 1.2.5AGRP
7DISP 1.2.5 G does not apply to a branch of a UK UCITS management company in another EEA State.
COLL 7.2.1RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
COLL 7.2.1ARRP
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FSA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
SYSC 19A.1.1RRP
(1) 1The Remuneration Code applies to a BIPRU firm and a third country BIPRU firm.(2) In relation to a third country BIPRU firm, the Remuneration Code applies only in relation to activities carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom.(3) Otherwise, the Remuneration Code applies to a firm within (1) in the same way as SYSC 4.1.1 R (General Requirements).
SYSC 19A.1.2GRP
Part 2 of SYSC 1 Annex 1 provides for the application of SYSC 4.1.1 R (General Requirements). In particular, and subject to the provisions on group risk systems and controls requirements in SYSC 12, this means that:(1) in relation to what the Remuneration Code applies to, it:(a) applies in relation to regulated activities, activities that constitute dealing in investments as principal (disregarding the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding
COLL 4.7.2RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager must, for each UCITS scheme which it manages, draw up a short document in English containing key investor information (a "key investor information document") for investors.(2) The words "key investor information" must be clearly stated in this document. (3) Key investor information must include appropriate information about the essential characteristics of the UCITS scheme which is to be provided to investors so that they are reasonably able to understand
COLL 4.7.10GRP
COBS 4.13.2R(1)(b) and (c) (Marketing communications relating to UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes) require an authorised fund manager to ensure that its marketing communications that contain an invitation to purchase units in a UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme, indicate that a prospectus and key investor information exist, specifying where they may be obtained by the public or how the public may have access to them.
ICOBS 3.1.1RRP
1This section applies to a firm that carries on any distance marketing activity from an establishment in the United Kingdom, with or for a consumer in the United Kingdom or another EEA State.
ICOBS 3.1.19RRP
If a firm proposes to enter into a distance contract with a consumer that will be governed by the law of a country outside the EEA, the firm must ensure that the consumer will not lose the protection created by the rules in this section if the distance contract has a close link with the territory of one or more EEA States.[Note: articles 12 and 16 of the Distance Marketing Directive]
LR 14.3.23RRP
1A listed company that is not already required to comply with the transparency rules (or with corresponding requirements imposed by another EEA Member State) must comply with DTR 4, DTR 5 and DTR 6 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of the transparency rules.
LR 14.3.24RRP
2A listed company that is not already required to comply with DTR 7.2 (Corporate governance statements), or with corresponding requirements imposed by another EEA State, must comply with DTR 7.2 as if it were an issuer to which that section applies.