Related provisions for LR 4.2.11

61 - 80 of 85 items.

FEES 4.4.9D01/06/2011

3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FSA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444

COLL 6.9.6G01/12/2009

(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations and section 243(8) of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FSA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).(2) The FSA will take into account whether the name of the

COLL 3.2.6R27/04/2012

This table belongs to COLL 3.2.4 R (Matters which must be included in the instrument constituting the scheme)

	Name of scheme
1	A statement of:
	(1)	the name of the authorised fund; and
	(2)	whether the authorised fund is a UCITS scheme or a non-UCITS retail scheme.
	Investment powers in eligible markets
2	A statement that, subject to any restriction in the rules in this sourcebook or the instrument constituting the scheme, the scheme has the power to invest in any eligible securities market or deal on any eligible derivatives market to the extent that power to do so is conferred by COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers).
	Unitholder's liability to pay
3	A provision that a unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units which he holds.
	Base currency
4	A statement of the base currency of the scheme.
	Valuation and pricing
5	A statement setting out the basis for the valuation and pricing of the scheme.
	Duration of the scheme
6	If the scheme is to be wound up after a particular period expires, a statement to that effect.
	Object of the scheme
7	A statement:
	(1)	as to the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest; and
	(2)	that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk and giving unitholders the benefits of the results of the management of that property.
27A	Where the authorised fund is a qualifying money market fund, a statement to that effect and a statement that the authorised fund's investment objectives and policies will meet the conditions specified in the definition of qualifying money market fund.
	5Property Authorised Investment Funds
57B	For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:
	(1)	it is a property authorised investment fund;
	(2)	no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and
	(3)	in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 18 if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:
		(a) necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and
		(b) in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.11
	Government and public securities: investment in one issuer
8	Where relevant, for a UCITS scheme, a statement in accordance with COLL 5.2.12 R (Spread: government and public securities) as to the individual states or bodies in which over 35% of the value of the scheme may be invested in government and public securities.
	Classes of unit
9	A statement:
	(1)	specifying the classes of unit that may be issued, and for a scheme which is an umbrella, the classes that may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and
	(2)	if the rights of any class of unit differ, a statement describing those differences in relation to the differing classes.
	Authorised fund manager's charges and expenses
10	A statement setting out the basis on which the authorised fund manager may make a charge and recover expenses out of the scheme property.
	Issue or cancellation directly through the ICVC or trustee
11	Where relevant, a statement authorising the issue or cancellation of units to take place through the ICVC or trustee directly.
	In specie issue and cancellation
12	Where relevant, a statement authorising payment for the issue or cancellation of units to be made by the transfer of assets other than cash.
	Restrictions on sale and redemption
13	Where relevant, the restrictions which will apply in relation to the sale and redemption of units under COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption).
	Voting at meetings
14	The manner in which votes may be given at a meeting of unitholders under COLL 4.4.8 R (Voting rights).
	Certificates
15	A statement:
	(1)	authorising the issue of bearer certificates if any, and how such holders are to identify themselves; and
	(2)	authorising the person responsible for the register to charge for issuing any document recording, or for amending, an entry on the register, other than on the issue or sale of units.
	Income
16	A statement setting out the basis for the distribution or re-investment of income.
	Income equalisation
17	Where relevant, a provision for income equalisation.
	Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules
18	A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.
	ICVCs: larger and smaller denomination shares
19	A statement of the proportion of a larger denomination share represented by a smaller denomination share for any relevant unit class.
	ICVCs: resolution to remove a director
20	A statement that the ICVC may (without prejudice to the requirements of regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), by a resolution passed by a simple majority of the votes validly cast for and against the resolution at a general meeting of unitholders, remove a director before his period of office expires, despite anything else in the ICVC's instrument of incorporation or in any agreement between the ICVC and that director.
	ICVCs: unit transfers
21	A statement that the person designated for the purposes of paragraph 4 of Schedule 4 to the OEIC Regulations (Share transfers) is the person who, for the time being, is the ACD of the ICVC.1 7
	ICVCs: Charges and expenses
22	A statement that charges or expenses of the ICVC may be taken out of the scheme property.10
	10ICVCs: Umbrella schemes - principle of limited recourse
1022A	For an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose.
	AUTs: governing law for a trust deed
23	A statement that the trust deed is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.
	AUTs: trust deed to be binding and authoritative
24	A statement that the trust deed:
	(1)	is binding on each unitholder as if it had been a party to it and that it is bound by its provisions; and
	(2)	authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms.
	AUTs: declaration of trust
25	A declaration that, subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules) and for the time being in force:
	(1)	the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of undivided shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and
	(2)	the sums standing to the credit of the distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 6.8 (Income: accounting, allocation and distribution).
	AUTs: trustee's remuneration
26	Where relevant, a statement authorising payments to the trustee by way of remuneration for its services to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property.
	AUTs: responsibility for the register
27	A statement identifying the person responsible under the rules for the maintenance of the register.
	3Investment in overseas4 property through an intermediate holding vehicle
328	3If investment in an overseas4 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas4 immovables by the scheme.

PERG 9.11.1G01/07/2005

Table There are some frequently asked questions about the application of the definition of an open-ended investment company in the following table. This table belongs to PERG 9.2.4 G (Introduction).

Question	Answer
1	Can a body corporate be both open-ended and closed-ended at the same time?	In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'no'. The fact that the investment condition is applied to BC (rather than to particular shares in, or securities of, BC) means that a body corporate is either an open-ended investment company as defined in section 236 of the Act or it is not. Where BC is an open-ended investment company, all of its securities would be treated as units of a collective investment scheme for the purpose of the Act. A body corporate formed in another jurisdiction may, however, be regarded as open-ended under the laws of that jurisdiction but not come within the definition of an open-ended investment company in section 236 (and vice versa).
2	Can an open-ended investment company become closed-ended (or a closed-ended body become open-ended)?	In the FSA's view, the answer to this question is 'yes'. A body corporate may change from open-ended to closed-ended (and vice versa) if, taking an overall view, circumstances change so that a hypothetical reasonable investor would consider that the investment condition is no longer met (or vice versa). This might happen where, for example, an open-ended investment company stops its policy of redeeming shares or securities at regular intervals (so removing the expectation that a reasonable investor would be able to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable). See also PERG 9.7.5 G.
3	Does the liquidation of a body corporate affect the assessment of whether or not the body is an open-ended investment company?	The FSA considers that the possibility that a body corporate that would otherwise be regarded as closed-ended may be wound up has no effect at all on the nature of the body corporate before the winding up. The fact that, on a winding up, the shares or securities of any investor in the body corporate may be converted into cash or money on the winding up (and so 'realised') would not, in the FSA's view, affect the outcome of applying the expectation test to the body corporate when looked at as a whole. The answer to Question 4 explains that investment in a closed-ended fixed term company shortly before its winding up does not, in the FSA's view, change the closed-ended nature of the company. For companies with no fixed term, the theoretical possibility of a winding up at some uncertain future point is not, in the FSA's view, a matter that would generally carry weight with a reasonable investor in assessing whether he could expect to be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period.
4	Does a fixed term closed-ended investment company become an open-ended investment company simply because the fixed term will expire?	In the FSA's view, the answer to this is 'no'. The termination of the body corporate is an event that has always been contemplated (and it will appear in the company's constitution). Even as the date of the expiry of the fixed term approaches, there is nothing about the body corporate itself that changes so as to cause a fundamental reassessment of its nature as something other than closed-ended. Addressing this very point in parliamentary debate, the Economic Secretary to the Treasury stated that the "aim and effect [of the definition] is to cover companies that look, to a reasonable investor, like open-ended investment companies". The Minister added that "A reasonable investor's overall expectations of potential investment in a company when its status with respect to the definition is being judged will determine whether it meets the definition. The matter is therefore, definitional rather than one of proximity to liquidation". (Hansard HC, 5 June 2000 col 124).
5	In what circumstances will a body corporate that issues a mixture of redeemable and non-redeemable shares or securities be an open-ended investment company?	In the FSA's view, the existence of non-redeemable shares or securities will not, of itself, rule out the possibility of a body corporate falling within the definition of an open-ended investment company. All the relevant circumstances will need to be considered (see PERG 9.6.4 G, PERG 9.2.8.8G and PERG 9.8.9 G). So the following points need to be taken into account. The precise terms of the issue of all the shares or securities will be relevant to the question whether the investment condition is met, as will any arrangements that may exist to allow the investor to realise his investment by other means. The proportions of the different share classes will be relevant to the impression the reasonable investor forms of the body corporate. A body corporate that issues only a minimal amount of redeemable shares or securities will not, in theFSA's view, be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that issues a minimal amount of non-redeemable shares or securities will be likely to be an open-ended investment company. A body corporate that falls within the definition of an open-ended investment company is likely to have (and to be marketed as having) mainly redeemable shares or securities. However, whether or not the body corporate does fall within the definition in any particular case will be subject to any contrary indications there may be in its constitutional documents or otherwise. Where shares or securities are only redeemable after the end of a stated period, this factor will make it more likely that the body corporate is open-ended than if the shares or securities are never redeemable.
6	Does "realised on a basis calculated wholly or mainly by reference to..." in section 236(3)(b) apply to an investor buying investment trust company shares traded on a recognised investment exchange because of usual market practice that the shares trade at a discount to asset value?	In the FSA's view, the answer is 'no' (for the reasons set out in PERG 9.9.4 G to PERG 9.9.6 G).
7	Does the practice of UK investment trust companies buying back shares result in them becoming open-ended investment companies?	In the FSA's view, it does not, because its actions will comply with company law: see section 236(4) of the Act and PERG 9.6.5 G.
8	Would a body corporate holding out redemption or repurchase of its shares or securities every six months be an open-ended investment company?	In the FSA's view a period of six months would generally be too long to be a reasonable period for a liquid securities fund. A shorter period affording more scope for an investor to take advantage of any profits caused by fluctuations in the market would be more likely to be a reasonable period for the purpose of the realisation of the investment (in the context of the 'expectation' test, see PERG 9.8 and, in particular, PERG 9.8.9 G which sets out the kind of factors that may need to be considered in applying the test).
9	Would an initial period during which it is not possible to realise investment in a body corporate mean that the body corporate could not satisfy the investment condition?	In the FSA's view, the answer to that question is 'no'. In applying the investment condition, the body corporate must be considered as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G). At the time that the shares or securities in a body corporate are issued, a reasonable investor may expect that he will be able to realise his investment within a reasonable period notwithstanding that there will first be a short-term delay before he can do so. Whether or not the 'expectation test' is satisfied will depend on all the circumstances (see PERG 9.8.9 G).

PR App 1.1.101/07/2012

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act	the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.
admission to trading	admission to trading on a regulated market.
advertisement	(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:
	(1)	relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and
	(2)	aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4
applicant	an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.
asset backed security	(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:
	(1)	represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or
	(2)	are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.
base prospectus	a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.
body corporate	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;
building block	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4
CESR recommendations	the recommendations for the consistent implementation of the European Commission's Regulation on Prospectuses no 809/2004 published by the Committee of European Securities Regulators.
collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type	(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:
	(1)	the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;
	(2)	the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4
4 company	any body corporate.
Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive	Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.
credit institution	as defined in article 1(1) of the Banking Consolidation Directive.
director	(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.
EEA State	(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.
equity security	(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.
equity share	shares comprised in a company's equity share capital.
equity share capital	(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.
executive procedures	the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FSA staff under executive procedures)2. 2 2
FSA	the Financial Services Authority.
guarantee	(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.
guarantor	a person that provides a guarantee.
Home State or Home Member State	(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).
Host State or Host Member State	(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.
3	[deleted]3 3
3	[deleted]3 3
issuer	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4
4 key information	(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:
	(a)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;
	(b)	the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;
	(c)	the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;
	(d)	details of the admission to trading; and
	(e)	the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.
MiFID 3	The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC). See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3
non-equity transferable securities	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.
	Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".
offer	an offer of transferable securities to the public.
offer of transferable securities to the public	(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:
	(a)	a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on: (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and (ii) the terms on which they are offered, to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;
	(b)	which is made in any form or by any means;
	(c)	including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;
	(d)	but not including a communication in connection with trading on: (i) a regulated market; (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.
	Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.
offering programme	(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.
offeror	a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.
overseas company	a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.
Part 6 rules	(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.
PD	prospectus directive.
PD Regulation	Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.
person	(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).
PR	the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.
profit estimate	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.
profit forecast	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.
property collective investment undertaking	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.
prospectus	a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.
prospectus directive	the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).
Prospectus Rules	(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.
Public international body	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.
qualified investor	(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4
	(a)	a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4 4
	(b)	a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(c)	a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4 4
	(d)	a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of MiFID.4
registration document	a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
regulated information	(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3
regulated market	a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3
RIS	Regulatory Information Service.
risk factors	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.
rule	(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FSA under the Act.
schedule	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.
securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner	(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.
securities note	a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.
small and medium-sized enterprise	(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.
special purpose vehicle	(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.
statutory notice associated decision	a decision which is made by the FSA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:
statutory notice decision	a decision by the FSA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.
	(a)	to determine or extend the period for making representations;
	(b)	to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;
	(c)	to refuse access to FSA material;
	(d)	as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.
summary	(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.
supplementary prospectus	a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.
transferable security	(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID 3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months. 3
	Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".
umbrella collective investment scheme	(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.
United Kingdom	England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).
units of a collective investment scheme	(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.
working day	(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

Related provisions for LR 4.2.11

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