Related provisions for BIPRU 12.7.7

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SUP App 3.3.10GRP
The E-Commerce Directive does not affect the responsibilities of Home State under the Single Market Directives. This includes the obligation of a Home State regulator to notify the Host State regulator of a firm's intention to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the other EEA State.
SUP App 3.3.13GRP
1The Single Market Directives require credit institutions, insurance undertakings (other than reinsurance undertakings)5, MiFID investment firms3, UCITS management companies and insurance intermediaries to make a notification to the Home State before establishing a branch or providing cross border services.SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention) sets out the notification requirements for a firm seeking to establish a branch or provide cross border services. As firms will note, the decision
SUP 13.12.2GRP
To contact the Passport Notifications Unit:43(1) telephone on 020 7066 1000; fax on 020 7066 97983; or3(2) write to: The Passport Notifications Unit, The Financial Services Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London E14 5HS; or(3) Email: passport.notifications@fsa.gov.uk
SUP 13A.9.5GRP
(1) The purpose of the precautionary measure rule is to ensure that an incoming EEA firm is subject to the standards of MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive to the extent that the Home State has not transposed MiFID or the MiFID implementing Directive by 1 November 2007. It is to 'fill a gap'.(2) The rule is made in the light of the duty of the United Kingdom under Article 62 of MiFID to adopt precautionary measures to protect investors. (3) The rule will be effective for
COLL 12.1.2GRP
(1) This chapter contains rules and guidance relating to the operation of the management company passport under the UCITS Directive and explains how the passporting regime applies to:(a) a UK UCITS management company that operates an EEA UCITS scheme; and (b) an EEA UCITS management company that acts as the manager of an AUT or the ACD of an ICVC that is a UCITS scheme;whether from a branch it establishes in an EEA State other than its Home State or under the freedom to provide
COLL 12.1.3GRP
Where an authorised fund manager wishes to market the units of a UCITS scheme it operates in a Host State, without establishing a branch or pursuing any other activities in that State, a management company passport is not required for those marketing activities. A UCITS marketing notification should be made for the relevant UCITS scheme (see COLL 12.4 (UCITS product passport) in order to access the market of the Host State. The marketing must be carried on in conformity with the
REC 2.7.1AUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B

2(1)

The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities.

(2)

In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from -

(a)

the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE];

(b)

rules relating to transactions on the market;

(c)

its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE];

(d)

conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and

(e)

the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a financial market operated by the [UK RIE].

(3)

Rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a financial market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership (as the case may be) only -

(a)

an investment firm,

(b)

a credit institution, or

(c)

a person who -

(i)

is fit and proper,

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability and competence,

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role he is to perform, taking into account the [UK RIE's] arrangements under paragraph 4(2)(d).

(4)

Rules under this paragraph must enable -

(a)

an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or

(b)

a credit institution authorised under the Banking Consolidation Directive,

by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any financial market operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FSA] with a list of users or members of its facilities.

(6)

This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4.

REC 2.7.1BUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7C

2(1)

This paragraph applies to [a UK RIE] which provides central counterparty, clearing or settlement facilities.

(2)

The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules based on objective criteria, governing access to those facilities.

(3)

The rules under sub-paragraph (2) must enable an investment firm or a credit institution authorised by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have access to those facilities on the same terms as a UK firm for the purposes of finalising or arranging the finalisation of transactions in financial instruments.

(4)

The [UK RIE] may refuse access to those facilities on legitimate commercial grounds.

INSPRU 1.5.9GRP
Internal-contagion risk includes in particular the risk that arises where a firm carries on:(1) both insurance and non-insurance activities; or(2) two or more different types of insurance activity; or(3) insurance activities from offices or branches located in both the United Kingdom and overseas.
INSPRU 1.5.12GRP
Finally, the section sets out requirements to protect policyholders of branches of non-EEA firms where these are supervised by the FSA. These apply only to a non-EEAfirm that has established a branch in the United Kingdom.
INSPRU 1.1.3RRP
For a non-EEA insurer with a branch in the United Kingdom whose insurance business in the United Kingdom is not restricted to reinsurance (other than an EEA-deposit insurer, a Swiss general insurer or a UK-deposit insurer):(1) the part of this section headed "Capital requirements for insurers" (INSPRU 1.1.43 G to INSPRU 1.1.92B G) applies to its world-wide activities;(2) the parts of this section headed:(a) "Establishing technical provisions" (INSPRU 1.1.12 R to INSPRU 1.1.19
INSPRU 1.1.4RRP
For an EEA-deposit insurer or a Swiss general insurer:(1) the parts of this section headed:(a) "Establishing technical provisions" (INSPRU 1.1.12 R to INSPRU 1.1.19 G);(b) "Reinsurance and analogous non-reinsurance financing agreements: risk transfer principle" (INSPRU 1.1.19A R to INSPRU 1.1.19F G);(c) "Assets of a value sufficient to cover technical provisions and other liabilities" (INSPRU 1.1.20 R to INSPRU 1.1.29 G);(d) "Matching of assets and liabilities" (INSPRU 1.1.34
INSPRU 1.1.5RRP
For a UK-deposit insurer:(1) the part of this section headed "Capital requirements for insurers" (INSPRU 1.1.43 G to INSPRU 1.1.92B G) applies to its world-wide activities;(2) the parts of this section headed:(a) "Establishing technical provisions" (INSPRU 1.1.12 R to INSPRU 1.1.19 G);(b) "Reinsurance and analogous non-reinsurance financing agreements: risk transfer principle" (INSPRU 1.1.19A R to INSPRU 1.1.19F G);(c) "Assets of a value sufficient to cover technical provisions
CASS 1.3.3RRP
CASS applies to every UK firm, other than an insurer, in relation to passported activities carried on by it from a branch in another EEA State.
TC App 2.1.1RRP

1UK domestic firm

Incoming EEA firm

Overseas firm (other than an incoming EEA firm)

MiFID business and equivalent third country business

TC applies in respect of employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

and

TC also applies insofar as an activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative or, where applicable, its tied agent) in, and within the territory of, another EEA State

TC does not apply

TC applies in respect of employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

Insurance mediation activities

TC applies in respect of employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

and

TC also applies in respect of employees who engage in or oversee activities from a branch established in another EEA state

TC does not apply

TC does not apply

Regulated mortgage activity and reversion activity

TC applies if the customer is resident in the United Kingdom at the time the regulated mortgage activity or reversion activity is carried on

and

TC also applies if the customer is resident in another EEA State (at the time that the activity is carried on) but only if the activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom

Same as for UK domestic firm

Same as for UK domestic firm

Any other activity in Appendix 1

TC applies in respect of employees who carry on these activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

and

TC also applies in respect of employees who carry on activities with or for a client in the United Kingdom

TC applies in respect of its employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

TC applies in respect of its employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

DISP 1.9.1RRP
A firm, including, in the case of MiFID business or collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme,2 a branch of a UKfirm in another EEA state, must keep a record of each complaint received and the measures taken for its resolution, and retain that record for:(1) at least five years where the complaint relates to MiFID business or collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme;2 and(2) three years for all
PERG 8.19.1GRP
Article 10 of the Financial Promotion Order (Application to qualifying contracts of insurance) precludes any of the exemptions from applying to a financial promotion which invites or induces a person to enter into a life policy with a person who is not:(1) an authorised person; or(2) an exempt person who is exempt in relation to effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance of the class to which the promotion relates; or(3) a company with its head office or a branch or agency
COLL 9.2.2GRP
(1) 1The units of an EEA UCITS scheme in respect of which a notification has been transmitted to the FSA by the competent authority of the UCITS Home State in accordance with article 93 of the UCITS Directive may be marketed in the United Kingdom. This is the effect of section 264 (Schemes constituted in other EEA States) read in conjunction with section 238(4)(c) (Restrictions on promotion) of the Act.(2) Where a management company wishes to market the units of an EEA UCITS scheme
FIT 1.1.1GRP
FIT applies to:(1) a firm;(2) an applicant for Part IV permission;(3) and EEA firm, a Treaty firm or a UCITS qualifier that wishes to establish a branch into the United Kingdom using EEA rights, Treaty rights or UCITS directive rights (see SUP 10.1.12 G and SUP 10.1.13 R ), or apply for a top-up permission (see SUP 10.1.14 R);(4) an approved person; and(5) a candidate.
SYSC 13.1.2GRP
SYSC 13 applies to:(1) an EEA-deposit insurer; and(2) a Swiss general insurer;only in respect of the activities of the firm carried on from a branch in the United Kingdom.
SUP 13.11.1RRP
(1) A UK firm which is exercising an EEA right must make and retain a record of:(a) the services or activities it carries on from a branch in, or provides cross-border into, another EEA State under that EEA right; and(b) the details relating to those services or activities (as set out in SUP 13.6 and SUP 13.7)1.11(2) The record in (1) must be kept for five years (for firms passporting under MiFID) or 1three years (for other firms)1from the earlier of the date on which:(a) it was
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 or section 288of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

1111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7

7137977

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA.

20

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) An applicant for a ceding insurer's waiver.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.916

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

COLL 6.12.1RRP
1This section applies to:(1) an authorised fund manager and a depositary of a UCITS scheme; and(2) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.
COLL 6.12.2GRP
In the FSA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective