Related provisions for MCOB 13.3.4C
101 - 120 of 668 items.
The purpose of this section is to give directions to authorised payment institutions and small payment institutions under regulation 82 (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations in relation to:(1) the information in respect of their provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 6 of the Payment Services Regulations that they must provide to the FSA; and(2) the time at which and the form in which they must
(1) An authorised payment institution or a small payment institution must submit to the FSA2 the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D.2(2) An authorised payment institution or a small payment institution must submit the return referred to in (1):(a) in the format specified as applicable in column (3) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D;(b) at the frequency and in respect of the periods specified in column (4) of that table;(c) by
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FSA powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the FSA to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FSA may direct a UK recognised body to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FSA must consult the recognised body concerned. The FSA may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section
The Companies Act 1989: section 166
The FSA may issue a "positive" direction (to take action) under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] has not taken action under itsdefault rules- if it appears to [the FSA] that it could take action, [the FSA may direct it to do so, |
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but under section 166(3)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FSA] shall consult the [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] in question; and [the FSA] shall not give a direction unless [the FSA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that failure to take action would involve undue risk to investors or other participants in the market, |
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The FSA may issue a "negative" direction (not to take action) under section 166(2)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] has not taken action under its default rules - if it appears to the [FSA] that it is proposing to take or may take action, [the FSA] may direct it not to do so. |
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but under section 166(3)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
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Before giving such a direction the [FSA] shall consult the [UK RIE] or [UK RCH] in question; and the [FSA] shall not give a direction unless [the FSA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that the taking of action would be premature or otherwise undesirable in the interests of investors or other participants in the market. |
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The FSA's view is that the exercise of these powers will only be justified in exceptional circumstances. The most likely case in which the FSA would consider exercising them is if there were a need to coordinate action by different UK recognised bodies because, for example: (1) the likelihood of a default may not be apparent to all UK recognised bodies; or(2) there was a need to avoid premature default action by one UK recognised body; or(3) significantly different settlement
Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK recognised body has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FSA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK recognised body concerned under its default rules. However, the FSA cannot give such a direction unless it is satisfied that this will not impede or frustrate the proper and efficient conduct of the default proceedings.
Where, in relation to a member (or designated non-member) of a UK RIE or a member of a UK RCH:(1) a bankruptcy order; or(2) an award of sequestration of his estate; or(3) an order appointing an interim receiver of his property; or(4) an administration or winding-up order; or(5) a resolution for a voluntary winding-up; or(6) an order appointing a provisional liquidator; has been made or passed and the UK recognised body has not taken action under its default rules as a result of
The procedure is that the FSA must notify the UK recognised body of the application and, unless within three business days after receipt of that notice, the UK recognised body: (1) takes action under its default rules; or(2) notifies the FSA that it proposes to take action forthwith; or(3) is directed to take action by the FSA under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989; the provisions of sections 158 to 165 of the Companies Act 1989 do not apply in relation to market contracts
The following documents must be submitted, in final form, to the FSA by midday two business days before the FSA is to consider the application:(1) a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List;(2) one of:(a) the prospectus, or listing particulars, that has been approved by the FSA; or(b) a copy of the prospectus, a certificate of approval and (if applicable) a translation of the summary of the prospectus, if another EEA State is the home Member State
The1 following documents signed by a sponsor (if a sponsor is required under LR 8) or by a duly authorised officer of the applicant (if a sponsor is not required under LR 8) 1must be submitted, in final form, to the FSA before 9 a.m. on the day the FSA is to consider the 1application:1(1) a completed Shareholder Statement, in the case of an applicant that is applying for a listing of a class of 1shares4 for the first time; or [Note: see LR 8.4.3 R and LR 8.4.9 R1];414(2) a completed
If written confirmation of the number of shares 4to be allotted pursuant to a board resolution1 cannot be submitted to the FSA by the deadline set out in LR 3.3.2 R or the number of shares4to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.3.2 R,1 written confirmation of the number of shares4to be allotted or admitted must be provided to the FSA by 1the applicant or its sponsor at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.14144141
1If the FSA has considered an application for listing and the shares4the subject of the application are not all allotted and admitted following the initial allotment of the shares4(for example, under an offer for subscription), further allotments of shares4may be admitted if before 4pm on the day before admission is sought the FSA has been provided with:444(1) written confirmation of the number of shares4allotted pursuant to a board resolution; and4(2) a copy of the RIS announcement
The
significance of conduct identified in the Code
of Practice for Approved Persons as tending to establish compliance
with or a breach of a Statement of Principle will
be assessed only after all the circumstances of a particular case have been
considered. Account will be taken of the context in which a course of conduct
was undertaken, including the precise circumstances of the individual case,
the characteristics of the particular controlled function and the behaviour to be
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons (and
in particular the specific examples of behaviour which may be in breach of
a generic description of conduct in the code) is not exhaustive of the kind
of conduct that may contravene the Statements
of Principle. The purpose of the code is to help determine whether
or not a person's conduct complies
with a Statement of Principle.
The code may be supplemented from time to time. The FSA will amend the code if there is
a risk that unacceptable
UK domestic firmslisted on
the London Stock Exchange are subject to the UK
Corporate Governance Code4, whose internal
control provisions are amplified in the publication entitled "Internal Control: Revised Guidance
for Directors on the Combined Code (October 2005)" 4issued by the Financial Reporting Council4. FSA-regulated firms in this category will thus be subject
to that code as well as to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. In forming an opinion
whether
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FSA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
In the FSA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FSA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FSA's view, there is no realisation of value where
The most typical means of realising BC's shares or securities will be by their being redeemed or repurchased, whether by BC or otherwise. There are, of course, other ways in which a realisation may occur. However, the FSA considers that these will often not satisfy all the elements of the definition of an open-ended investment company considered together. For example, the mere fact that shares or securities may be realised on a market will not meet the requirements of the 'satisfaction
An investor in a body corporate may be able to realise part, but not all, of his investment. The FSA considers that the fact that partial realisations may take place at different times does not prevent the body corporate coming within the definition of an open-ended investment company. But, in any particular case, the 'expectation test' will only be met if the overall period for realising the whole of the investment can be considered to be reasonable. Apart from this, the simple
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FSA considers that a reasonable investor
In the FSA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
As indicated in PERG 9.3.5 G (The definition), the potential for variation in the form and operation of a body corporate is considerable. So, it is only possible in general guidance to give examples of the factors that the FSA considers may affect any particular judgment. These should be read bearing in mind any specific points considered elsewhere in the guidance. Such factors include:(1) the terms of the body corporate's constitution;(2) the applicable law;(3) any public representations
If a certificate is granted then, until it is revoked, it is conclusive evidence that the exclusion under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order applies. A person to whom a certificate is given should notify the FSA of any significant changes to the purpose or nature of the content of the relevant publication or service. The FSA will need to keep the content of the publication or service in question under review.
The FSA may revoke a certificate at the request of its holder or on the FSA's own initiative if the FSA considers that it is no longer justified. If the FSA revokes a certificate on its own initiative, it would normally expect to give advance notice to the holder of the certificate together with a statement of the reasons for the proposed revocation, and give the holder of the certificate an opportunity to make representations. Where a certificate is revoked, the holder of the
The fact of a person holding a certificate granted under article 54(3) is information which may be of relevance to other persons (including investors or potential investors). For this reason, the FSA considers it appropriate that details of certificates granted under article 54(3) should be included in a list on the public record which the FSA is required to maintain under section 347 of the Act (The record of authorised persons, etc).
The decision maker will:(1) consider whether the material on which the recommendation is based is adequate to support it; the decision maker may seek additional information about or clarification of the recommendation, which may necessitate additional work by the relevant FSA staff;(2) satisfy itself that the action recommended is appropriate in all the circumstances;(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
1DEPP 7 applies when the FSA:(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes of the investigation.
The purpose of DEPP 7 is to set out the FSA's statement of policy on the conduct of interviews to which a direction
under section 169(7) has been given or the FSA is considering giving. The FSA is required to prepare and publish this statement of policy by
section 169(9) and (11) of the Act.
As required by section 169(10) of the Act, the Treasury has approved
the statement of policy.
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FSAwritten notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.
Unless otherwise stated, the issuer or the owner, as the case may be, must send the relevant forms and information to the FSA's address marked for the attention of the "Covered Bonds Team, Capital Markets Sector" by any of the following methods:(1) post; or(2) leaving it at the FSA's address and obtaining a time-stamped receipt; or(3) e-mail to rcb@fsa.gov.uk.
Energy market participants should bear in mind that section 148 of the Act requires that in order to give a waiver of particular rules, the FSA must be satisfied that:(1) compliance with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not result in undue risk to persons whose interests the rules are intended to protect.
In particular, clause 4 of the form of waiver in SUP 21 Annex 1 will not ordinarily be inserted in waivers for energy market participants that will not, at the time the waiver will take effect, clearly satisfy the conditions set out in that clause. For these purposes the FSA will take into account the relative proportions of the energy market participant's assets and revenues that are referable to the various parts of its business, as well as to any other factor that the FSA considers
The FSA will try to notify the applicant
of its decision on an application for approval of listing
particulars or supplementary
listing particulars within the same time limits as are specified
in section 87C of the Act (consideration
of application for approval) for an application for approval of a prospectus or supplementary
prospectus.
The FSA will not refund periodic fees if, after the start of the period to which they relate:(1) a fee payer ceases to have the status set out in column (1) of the table in FEES 4.2.11 R; or(2) a firm reduces its permission or payment services activities 9so that it then falls out of the fee-block previously applied to it;99(but see FEES 2.3 (Relieving Provisions) and FEES 4.3.13 R (Firms Applying to Cancel or Vary Permission Before Start of Period)).
A person need not pay a periodic fee on the date on which it is due under the relevant provision in FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergencies) exist, and that person has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case he must pay it on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) unless FEES 4.3.6R (3), 9FEES 4.3.6R
Table of periodic fees
1 Fee payer |
2 Fee payable |
3 Due date |
4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee |
Any firm (except an ICVC or a UCITS qualifier) |
As specified in FEES 4.3.1 R |
(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12 (2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7 (3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators). 77 |
Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities9 9 |
Any firm which reports transactions3 to the FSA using the FSA's Direct Reporting System or FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see SUP 17) 3 |
(1) For transaction charges, the first working day of each month (2) For licence fees and enrolment charges, by the date set out on the relevant invoice |
Not applicable |
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Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FSA under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.) |
£1,000 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 30 April (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event |
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Any manager of an authorised unit trust; |
In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme |
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In relation to each ICVC the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
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Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, is responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme; |
In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in FEES 4 Annex 4 |
The relevant scheme becomes a recognised collective investment scheme |
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Not applicable |
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FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE or UK RCH; and FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP13 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, by the due dates set out in FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1and (in the case of an RAP) part 1A13 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event |
Recognition order is made. The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.131166 1166116611661166 |
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FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2 |
(1), unless (2) applies, 1 July. (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event. |
Recognition order is made. The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166 1166116611661166 |
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Listedissuers (in LR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives (in LR), unless the conditions set out below apply.3 The first condition is that the listedissuer, or a related entity, has already paid a periodic fee in respect of the period concerned. The second condition is that the listedissuer is subject to listing rules as a result of a reverse takeover, or that the listedissuer is a newly formed entity, created as a result of a restructuring.3 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules 3 |
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£20,0001210 per year for the period from 1 April to 31 March the following year (see Note)2 1012 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
(1)14Approval of sponsor, unless (2) applies.14 (2) In the case of approval of a sponsor following a change of legal status in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 7, the balance of the fee otherwise due from the original sponsor. Where a payment is made in accordance with (2) the original sponsor's obligation to pay that fee ceases.14 |
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All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares, depositary receipts and securitised derivatives.6 6 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure rules and transparency rules6 |
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6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FSA in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10 10 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Not applicable |
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15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond. |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R (2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year , 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R |
A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond |
Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2
Article 25(1) applies only where the arrangements bring about or would bring about the particular transaction in question. This is because of the exclusion in article 26. In the FSA's view, a person brings about or would bring about a transaction only if his involvement in the chain of events leading to the transaction is of enough importance that without that involvement it would not take place. The second limb (article 25(2)) is potentially much wider as it does not require
The ordinary business of a publisher or broadcaster can involve him in publishing or broadcasting financial promotions (for example, advertisements) on behalf of authorised or exempt persons. Journalists who write about investments or financial services may promote the services of an authorised or exempt person. In the FSA's opinion, such persons would not normally be regarded as making arrangements under article 25(2). This is the case even if any arrangements they may have made
The Regulated Activities Order contains an exclusion (article 27: Enabling parties to communicate) to bring a degree of certainty to this area. This applies to arrangements which might otherwise fall within article 25(2) merely because they provide the means by which one party to a transaction (or potential transaction) is able to communicate with other parties. In the FSA's view, the crucial element of the exclusion is the inclusion of the word ‘merely’. So that, where a publisher,
For example, in the FSA's view a publisher or broadcaster would be likely to be making arrangements within the meaning of article 25(2) and be unable to make use of the exclusion in article 27 if:(1) he enters into an agreement with a provider of investment services such as a broker or product provider for the purpose of carrying their financial promotion; and(2) as part of the arrangements, the publisher or broadcaster does one or more of the following:(a) brands the investment
Other persons who may benefit from the exclusion in article 27 include persons who provide the means for someone to route an order to another person. A person providing such order routing services would not, in the FSA's view, be merely facilitating communication (of the orders) if he provides added value. This added value could be in the form, for example, of such things as formatted screens, audit trails, checking completeness of orders or matching orders or reconciling tra
The Act does not provide a mechanism for appeals to the FSA from decisions by recognised bodies in relation to complaints. However, the FSA is required by section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) to have arrangements to investigate complaints (called relevant complaints in the Act) which it considers relevant to the question of whether a recognised body should remain recognised as such. This section describes aspects of the FSA's arrangements for investigating
Where the FSA receives a complaint about a recognised body, it will, in the first instance, seek to establish whether the complainant has approached the recognised body. Where this is not the case, the FSA will ask the complainant to complain to the recognised body. Where the complainant is dissatisfied with the handling of the complaint, but has not exhausted the recognised body's own internal complaints procedures (in the case of a complaint against a UK recognised body, including
When it is considering a relevant complaint, the FSA will make its own enquiries as appropriate with the recognised body, the complainant and other persons. It will usually ask the recognised body and the complainant to comment upon any preliminary or draft conclusions of its review and to confirm any matters of fact at that stage.
In the FSA's view, this means that the reasonable investor must be satisfied that what he will get when he realises his investment is his proportionate share in the value of BC's underlying assets, less any dealing costs. In other words, that he is satisfied he will get net asset value. The investment condition focuses on the way the body corporate operates over time, and not by reference to particular issues of shares or securities (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition
For the 'satisfaction test' to be met, there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could form a view. He must be satisfied that the value of BC's property will be the basis of a calculation used for the whole, or substantially the whole, of his investment. The FSA considers that the circumstances, or combination of circumstances, in which a reasonable investor would be in a position to form this view include:(1) where the basis of net asset valuation
PERG 9.9.3 G (2)and PERG 9.9.3 G (3) refer to circumstances where the reasonable investor may be satisfied that he can realise his investment at net asset value because of arrangements made to ensure that the shares or securities trade at net asset value on a market. There may, for example, be cases of market dealing where the price of shares or securities will not depend on the market. An example is where BC or a third party undertakes to ensure that the market value reflects
However, where there is a market, the FSA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FSA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a
The fact that the definition must be applied to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general)) is also relevant here. So, for example, in a take-over situation the fact that a bidder may be willing to provide an exit route for an investment at net asset value will be irrelevant within the context of the definition. This is so even if an investor invests in particular shares or securities in the knowledge or expectation or in anticipation
When making a decision on an application
for registration under the RCB Regulations,
or in relation to material changes to the contractual terms of the regulated covered bond, or in relation to
a change of owner, or when
seeking to use direction, revocation or penalty powers, the RCB
Regulations require the FSA to give the subject of the intended
action a warning notice and
a decision notice. The recipient
of a warning notice has the
right to make representations to the decision
Regulation 44 of the RCB Regulations (Warning notices and decision
notices) applies Part XXVI of the Act (Notices)
in respect of notices that we give under the RCB
Regulations. This means that the provisions of section 393
of the Act (Third party rights)
and section 394 of the Act (Access
to Authority material) apply to penalty procedures under the RCB Regulations and that, if the matter
is not referred to the Tribunal,
then upon taking the action to which a decision
notice relates,
Decisions on applications for registration,
in relation to material changes to contractual terms of the regulated
covered bond, or in relation to a change of owner, or decisions
to issue a direction under the RCB Regulations or
to revoke an issuer's registration,
will be taken under executive procedures following
the process set out in DEPP 4.
General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FSA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FSA website at www.fsa.gov.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) FSA Guidance Note GN9 (2010) on financial regulation for social housing providers which is available at http://www.fsa.gov.uk/pubs/guidance/guidance9.pdf;4124(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) [deleted]313(5) [deleted]313(6) [deleted]313(7)
Any person who, having read relevant general guidance and, where appropriate, taken legal advice, remains uncertain about whether his activities amount to regulated activities or his communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act, may seek individual guidance from the FSA. Requests for individual guidance should be made in line with SUP 9.
In addition, the FSA has established a team to provide general assistance and guidance to persons generally about the scope of the Act. Enquiries of this kind may be made:(1) by authorised firms, to either the FirmContact Centre (email fcc@fsa.gov.uk, Tel 0845 606 9966) or their normal supervisory contact; or(2) by individuals or non-authorised firms, to the Consumer Contact Centre (email ccc@fsa.gov.uk, Tel 0845 606 1234) or the Perimeter Enquiries Team (email authorisationenquiries@fsa.gov.uk,