Related provisions for BIPRU 12.7.7
1 - 20 of 94 items.
Every firm subject to BIPRU 12 is subject to the overall liquidity adequacy rule. The effect of that rule is that every firm is required to be self-sufficient in terms of liquidity adequacy and to be able to satisfy that rule relying on its own liquidity resources. Where the firm is an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm compliance with the overall liquidity adequacy rule with respect to the UKbranch must be achieved relying solely on liquidity resources that satisfy
However, the FSA recognises that there may be circumstances in which it would be appropriate for a firm to rely on liquidity resources which can be made available to it by other members of its group, or for a firm to rely on liquidity resources elsewhere in the firm for the purposes of ensuring that its UKbranch has adequate liquidity resources in respect of the activities carried on from the branch. Where the FSA is satisfied that the statutory tests in section 148 (Modification
This section represents merely an indication of the matters to which the FSA will have regard in considering an application for a whole-firm liquidity modification or an intra-group liquidity modification. In considering such an application, the FSA will always take into account anything that it reasonably considers to be relevant for the purposes of assessing whether the statutory tests in section 148 of the Act are met. In doing so, it will have regard to the role and importance
In relation to an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm, the overall liquidity adequacy rule provides that, for the purpose of complying with that rule, a firm may not, in relation to its UKbranch, include liquidity resources other than those which satisfy the conditions in BIPRU 12.2.3 R. Those conditions seek to ensure that a firm of this kind has a reserve of liquidity for operational purposes that is under the control of, and available for use by, that firm'sUKbranch.
Although an incoming EEA firm or third country BIPRU firm may apply to modify the overall liquidity adequacy rule and other rules in BIPRU 12, in relation to its UKbranch, the FSA anticipates that many such firms will wish to apply for a modification in the form which the FSA defines as a whole-firm liquidity modification. In the FSA's view, a modification to the overall liquidity adequacy rule for a firm of this kind will tend to be appropriate where an applicant firm manages
Accordingly, a whole-firm liquidity modification envisages:(1) a modification to the overall liquidity adequacy rule so as to permit reliance by the firm, in relation to its UKbranch, on liquidity resources wherever held in the firm for the purposes of meeting that rule; and(2) a waiver of the remainder of the substantive rules in BIPRU 12, with the effect that the UKbranch of the applicant firm becomes subject for the purpose of day-to-day liquidity supervision to the liquidity
The effect of a whole-firm liquidity modification is that the FSA will in its supervision of the liquidity of the UKbranch place reliance on the liquidity regime of the Home State regulator or third country competent authority in question. The FSA will wish to ensure that it has adequate data at the time of consideration of the whole-firm liquidity modification application and, if the application is granted, on a continuing basis thereafter, about the liquidity position of the
In relation to the Home State regulator's or third country competent authority's regime of liquidity regulation, the FSA will, before granting a whole-firm liquidity modification, ordinarily expect to be satisfied that:(1) the regime in question delivers outcomes as regards the regulation of the applicant firm'sliquidity risk that are broadly equivalent to those intended by this chapter; and(2) there is clarity as to any legal constraints imposed by the Home State regulator or
In relation to the applicant firm in question, the FSA will, before granting a whole-firm liquidity modification, ordinarily expect to have reached agreement with the Home State regulator or third country competent authority in a number of areas, including agreement that:(1) it will notify the FSA promptly of any material or persistent breaches by that firm of its liquidity rules, or of risks that such breaches are imminent;(2) it is satisfied with the adequacy of the arrangements
In relation to the applicant firm in question, the FSA will, before granting a whole-firm liquidity modification, ordinarily expect to have reached agreement with that firm in a number of areas, including agreement that:(1) it will make available liquidity resources at all times to its UKbranch if needed;(2) it will make available to the FSA information in an appropriate format on firm-wide liquidity;(3) it will notify the FSA at the same time as it notifies the Home State regulator
The FSA also anticipates that a whole-firm liquidity modification would be made subject to a number of ongoing conditions and requirements. These are likely to include:(1) the FSA receiving annual confirmation from the Home State regulator or third country competent authority that it remains satisfied with the arrangements in respect of that firm for liquidity supervision and their operation;(2) an annual meeting with the Home State regulator or third country competent authority
In determining the appropriate duration of a whole-firm liquidity modification, the FSA will have regard to the role and importance of the UKbranch in question in the UK1financial system. In some cases, the FSA may take the view that a whole-firm liquidity modification, covering a UKbranch whose role and importance in the UK1financial system are significant, ought to be reviewed more regularly than one granted in respect of a less systemically significant branch. The FSA will
Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 36. Note that if a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a branch in that EEA State unless the firm has already established a branch in that EEA State (paragraph 20A of Schedule 3 to the Act).846
A UK firm other than a UK pure reinsurer9cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:(1) the UKfirm has given the FSA, in accordance with the FSArules (see SUP
4If the UK firm is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to establish a branch has not notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to establish a branch in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, SUP 13.3.2 G (2) and SUP 13.3.2 G (3) do not apply. Accordingly, the UK firm may establish the branch to which its notice of intention8 relates as soon
4An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention8 in SUP 13.3.2 G (1) should be given to the FSA by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative.58
8A tied agent appointed by a MiFID investment firm to carry on investment services and activities (and ancillary services where relevant) does not have its own passporting right to establish a branch in another EEA State. However, a MiFID investment firm remains free to appoint a tied agent to do business in another EEA State and where it does so, the tied agent will benefit from its passport.9
(1) 8If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Banking Consolidation Directive or10MiFID8,10 the FSA will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure.8 The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of a MiFID investment firm,
10A UK firm seeking to provide collective portfolio management services from a branch in another EEA State, is advised that it will need to refer to the rules of the competent authority of the UCITS Home State implementing article 20 of the UCITS Directive which will require it to submit to that competent authority information relating to its depositary agreement and certain delegation arrangements.
Where a UK firm is exercising an EEA right, other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see SUP 13.6.9A G) or the Reinsurance Directive (see SUP 13.6.9B R)8, and has established a branch in another EEA State, any changes to the details of the branch are governed by the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. References to regulations in this section are to the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. A UK firm which is not an authorised person should note that, under regulation 18,
UK firms should also note that changes to the details of branches may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the UK firm is subject. These changes should be communicated to the UK firm either by the Host State regulator, or, if the firm is passporting under Insurance Directives, via the FSA authorisations team.
If a UK firm has exercised an EEA right, under the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive, and established a branch in another EEA State, regulation 11(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in the requisite details of the branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), unless it has satisfied the requirements of regulation 11(2), or, where the change arises from circumstances beyond the UK firm's control, regulation 11(3) (see SUP 13.6.10 G).47
7If a UK firm has exercised an EEA right to establish a branch under MiFID, it must not make a change in the requisite details of the branch (see SUP 13 Annex 1), use, for the first time, a tied agent established in the EEA State in which the branch is established, or cease to use a tied agent established in the EEA State in which the branch is established, unless it has satisfied the requirements of regulation 11A(2) (see SUP 13.6.5B G).
(1) Before an EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer3exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be included in the consent notice has been prescribed under regulation 2 of
Where an incoming EEA firm is exercising an EEA right, other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, and has established a branch in the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of that branch. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accordingly. All references to regulations
(1) Where an incoming EEA firm passporting under the Banking Consolidation Directive or the UCITS Directive has established a branch in the United Kingdom, regulation 4 states that it must not make a change in the requisite details of the branch unless it has complied with the relevant requirements.5655(2) The relevant requirements are set out in regulation 4(4) or, where the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, in regulation 4(5) (see SUP 14.2.8
The FSA believes that for a change to arise from circumstances beyond the control of an incoming EEA firm, the circumstances should be outside the control of the firm as a whole and not just its UK branch. For example, the FSA considers that this provision would be unlikely to apply to circumstances in which lack of planning at the incoming EEA firm's head office resulted in a problem arising in a UKbranch which was outside its control. In practice, therefore, use of this provision
6Where an EEA MiFID investment firm has established a branch in the UK, regulation 4A states that it must not:7(1) make a change in the requisite details of the branch; or7(2) use, for the first time, any tied agent established in the United Kingdom; or7(3) cease to use tied agents established in the United Kingdom;7unless it has complied with the relevant requirements in regulation 4A(3).7
The senior personnel of a common platform firm, a management company3, or of the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1must be of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced as to ensure the sound and prudent management of the firm.[Note: article 9(1) of MiFID, article 7(1)(b) of the UCITS Directive3 and article 11(1) second paragraph of the Banking Consolidation Directive ]
A common platform firm, a management company3 and the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1must ensure that its management is undertaken by at least two persons meeting the requirements laid down in SYSC 4.2.1 R.[Note: article 9(4) first paragraph of MiFID, article 7(1)(b) of the UCITS Directive3and article 11(1) first paragraph of the Banking Consolidation Directive]
At least two independent minds should be applied to both the formulation and implementation of the policies of a common platform firm, a management company3 and the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1. Where such1 a firm1 nominates just two individuals to direct its business, the FSA will not regard them as both effectively directing the business where one of them makes some, albeit significant, decisions relating to only a few aspects of the business. Each should play a part in the
Where there are more than two individuals directing the business of a common platform firm, a management company3 or the UK branch of a non-EEA bank,1 the FSA does not regard it as necessary for all of these individuals to be involved in all decisions relating to the determination of strategy and general direction. However, at least two individuals should be involved in all such decisions. Both individuals' judgement should be engaged so that major errors leading to difficulties
If a common platform firm, (other than a credit institution) or the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1, is:1(1) a natural person; or(2) a legal person managed by a single natural person; it must have alternative arrangements in place which ensure sound and prudent management of the firm.[Note: article 9(4) second paragraph of MiFID]
Table Territorial issues relating to overseas insurance intermediaries carrying on insurance mediation activities in or into the United Kingdom
Needs Part IVpermission |
Schedule 3 EEA passport rights available |
Overseas persons exclusion available |
|
Registered EEA-based intermediary with UK branch (registered office or head office in another EEA State) |
No |
Yes |
No |
Registered EEA-based intermediary with no UK branch providing cross-border services |
No |
Yes |
Potentially available [see Note] |
Third country intermediary operating from branch in the UK |
Yes |
No |
No |
Third country intermediary providing services in (or into) the UK |
Yes unless overseas persons exclusion applies |
No |
Potentially available |
This does not, however, affect the firm'sauthorisation under Schedule 3 to the Act (see PERG 5.12.9 G to PERG 5.12.10 G (Passporting)). |
|||
3For EEA-based intermediaries this table assumes that the insurance mediation activities are within the scope of the Insurance Mediation Directive. |
|||
The effect of the IMD is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries doing business within the Directive’s scope4 must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance mediation in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the United
The E-Commerce Directive does not remove the IMD requirement for persons taking up or pursuing insurance mediation for remuneration to be registered in their Home State. Nor does it remove the requirement for EEA-based intermediaries to acquire passporting rights in order to establish branches in the United Kingdom (see PERG 5.12.7 G (Where is insurance mediation carried on?) in relation to electronic commerce activity carried on from an establishment in the United Kingdom) or
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive;44(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the Investment Services Directive .4(1A) 4Similarly, an EEA firm which:(a) has satisfied the Gibraltar
This chapter does not, however, give guidance on the procedures for the establishment of a branch in, or the providing of cross border services into, the United Kingdom for the first time. So, an incoming EEA firm that wishes to change or supplement the nature of its operations in the United Kingdom from the providing of cross border services to the establishment of a branch (or vice versa) should refer to 3SUP 13A3 (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act).
This chapter also applies to a UK firm which wishes to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, Gibraltar. The Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Gibraltar) Order 2001 provides that a UK firm is to be treated as having an entitlement corresponding to its EEA right, to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, Gibraltar under any of the Single Market Directives. So, references in this chapter to an EEA State or an EEA right include
This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.
The chapter also explains how a UK firm which has already established a branch in, or is providing cross border services into, another EEA State, may change the details of its branch or of the cross border services it is providing: for example, where a UK firm wishes to establish additional branches in an EEA State in which it has already established a branch where this would result in a change to the details provided previously. Such changes are governed by the EEA Passport Rights
A notice of intention3 may include activities within the scope of the relevant Single Market Directive which are not regulated activities (paragraphs 19(3) and 20(2) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act), although in the case of a MiFID investment firm a notice of intention may only include ancillary services which are to be carried on with one or more investment services and activities (paragraphs 19(5B) and 20(2A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act)3. Regulation 19 of the
639This chapter contains rules and guidance on how respondents should deal promptly and fairly with complaints in respect of business carried on from establishments in the United Kingdom,11 by certain branches of firms in the EEA or by certain EEA firms carrying out activities in the United Kingdom under the freedom to provide cross border services.11 It is also relevant to those who may wish to make a complaint or refer it to the Financial Ombudsman Service.
(1) This chapter applies to a firm in respect of complaints from eligible complainants concerning activities carried on from an establishment maintained by it or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom.(2) For complaints relating to the MiFID business of a firm, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule:(a) apply to complaints from retail clients and do not apply to complaints from eligible complainants who are not retail clients; (b) also apply in
11For complaints related to collective portfolio management services of a UK UCITS management company for a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme, DISP 1.1.3R (1) applies, except where modified as follows:(1) the consumer awareness rules, complaints handling rules and complaints record rule apply in respect of complaints from Unitholders rather than from eligible complainants; and(2) the consumer awareness rules, the complaints handling rules and the complaints record rule, as modified
For complaints related to collective portfolio management services of an EEA UCITS management company for a UCITS scheme, DISP 1.1.3R (1) applies, except where modified as follows:(1) where the services are provided from a branch in the United Kingdom, the consumer awareness rules, complaints handling rules and complaints record rule apply in respect of complaints from Unitholders rather than from eligible complainants; and(2) this chapter, except the consumer awareness rules,
This section applies to an EEA UCITS management company that provides collective portfolio management services in the United Kingdom by acting as the manager of an AUT or the ACD of an ICVC which is a UCITS scheme, either by establishing a branch or under the freedom to provide cross border services.
(1) An EEA UCITS management company may be the manager of an AUT or the ACD of an ICVC, that is a UCITS scheme (see SUP 13A (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act)).(2) An EEA UCITS management company that acts as the manager of an AUT, or the ACD of an ICVC, that is a UCITS scheme may conduct its business from a branch in the United Kingdom or under the freedom to provide cross border services (without establishing a branch in the United Kingdom).(3) The Glossary definition
An EEA UCITS management company that operates a UCITS scheme is advised that in particular it needs to comply with:(1) COLL 6.6.3 R (Functions of the authorised fund manager) requiring it to fulfil the obligations placed on it by the instrument constituting the scheme and the prospectus of that scheme;(2) Dispute resolution: Complaints sourcebook (DISP - see DISP 1 Annex 2 G for a summary of the relevant requirements that apply, which include the complaints handling rules (under
(1) In addition to the requirements of this section, an EEA UCITS management company that provides collective portfolio management services from a branch in the United Kingdom must comply with the following rules that implement the requirements of article 14(1) of the UCITS Directive:(a) COLL 6.6A.2 R (Duties of AFMs of UCITS schemes and EEA UCITS schemes to act in the best interests of the scheme and its Unitholders);(b) COLL 6.6A.4 R (Due diligence requirements of AFMs of UCITS
To aid consumer awareness of the protections offered by the provisions in this chapter, respondents must:(1) publish appropriate information regarding their internal procedures for the reasonable and prompt handling of complaints;617617(2) refer eligible complainants to the availability of this information:617556175(a) 5in relation to a payment service, in the information on out-of-court complaint and redress procedures required to be provided or made available under regulations
Respondents may also display or reproduce the Financial Ombudsman Service logo (under licence) in:(1) branches and sales offices to which eligible complainants have access; or(2) marketing literature or correspondence directed at eligible complainants;provided it is done in a way which is not misleading.
(1) 1This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)(2) This chapter also applies to:(a) a Treaty firm that wishes to exercise rights
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(aA) authorised in Gibraltar under the Reinsurance Directive; or6(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or22(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the MiFID4.24(1A) Similarly,
(1) This chapter explains how an EEA firm and a Treaty firm can qualify for authorisation under Schedules 3 and 4 to the Act and how a UCITS qualifier is authorised under Schedule 5 to the Act. (2) This chapter also provides guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for an incoming EEA firm that wishes to establish a branch in the United Kingdom instead of, or in addition to, providing cross border services into the United Kingdom or vice versa.
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
1Article
32(7) of MiFID provides that
the branch of a UK firm operating
from an establishment in another EEA state must
satisfy the transaction reporting requirements of the competent
authority in that other Member State in respect of reportable
transactions arising in the course of services provided in that other Member
State.
2In
line with guidance from CESR, the FSA acknowledges that, from a practical
point of view, it would be burdensome for branches of investment firms to be obliged to report
their transactions to two competent authorities. Therefore, all transactions executed by branches may
be reported to the competent authority of
the Host State, if the investment firm elects to do so. In these
cases transaction reports should
follow the rules of the competent authority to
which the report is
(1) If the insurance undertaking is an EEAfirm, the firm must inform the customer, before any commitment is entered into, of the EEA State in which the head office or, where appropriate, the branch with which the contract is to be concluded, is situated.(2) Any documents issued to the customer must convey the information required by this rule.[Note: article 43(2) of the Third Non-Life Directive]
The contract or any other document granting cover, together with the insurance proposal where it is binding upon the customer, must state the address of the head office, or, where appropriate, of the branch of the insurance undertaking which grants the cover.[Note: article 43(2) of the Third Non-Life Directive]
- (1)
Before a pure protection contract is concluded, a firm must inform a customer of the information in the table below.
- (2)
The information must be communicated in a clear and accurate manner, in writing, and in an official language of the State of the commitment or in another language agreed by the parties.
Information to be communicated before conclusion |
|
(1) |
The name of the insurance undertaking and its legal form. |
(2) |
The name of the EEA State in which the head office and, where appropriate, the agency or branch concluding the contract is situated. |
(3) |
The address of the head office and, where appropriate, of the agency or branch concluding the contract. |
(4)* |
Definition of each benefit and each option. |
(5)* |
Term of the contract. |
(6)* |
Means of terminating the contract. |
(7)* |
Means of payment of premiums and duration of payments. |
(8)* |
Information on the premiums for each benefit, both main benefits and supplementary benefits, where appropriate. |
(9) |
Arrangements for application of the cancellation period. |
(10) |
General information on the tax arrangements applicable to the type of policy. |
(11) |
The arrangements for handling complaints concerning contracts by policyholders, lives assured or beneficiaries under contracts including, where appropriate, the existence of a complaints body (usually the Financial Ombudsman Service), without prejudice to the right to take legal proceedings. |
(12) |
The law applicable to the contract where the parties do not have a free choice or, where the parties are free to choose the law applicable, the law the insurance undertaking proposes to choose. |
Note: The rule on mid-term changes applies to items marked with an asterisk (see ICOBS 6.3.3 R). |
|
[Note: Annex III(A) to the Consolidated Life Directive]
In addition to the policy conditions, both general and special, a customer must, throughout the term of a pure protection contract, receive:(1) any change in the name of theinsurance undertaking, its legal form or the address of its head office and, where appropriate, of the agency or branch which concluded the contract; and(2) all the information marked ‘*’ in the table of information to be communicated before conclusion, in the event of a change in the policy conditions or amendment
(1) 1This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme, a depositary, an ICVC and any other director of an ICVC which is a UCITS scheme; and(b) subject to (2), a UKUCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) COLL 6.6A.6 R (Strategies for the exercise of voting rights) also applies to a UKUCITS management company providing collective portfolio management