Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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COLL 4.7.3GRP
The KII Regulation sets out the form and content of a key investor information document. This Regulation is directly applicable in the United Kingdom and accordingly its articles (but not the preceding recitals) are binding on all firms to which it applies. Under the Regulation an authorised fund manager must ensure that each key investor information document it produces for a UCITS scheme complies with the requirements of the Regulation. For ease of reference the Regulation is
COLL 4.7.4GRP
While the original key investor information document is required by COLL 4.7.2 R to be drawn up in English, an authorised fund manager may prepare an accurate translation of it into any language for the purpose of marketing the units of the UCITS scheme in the United Kingdom. Any such translation should be prepared without alterations or supplements.
COLL 4.7.9GRP
Authorised fund managers are further advised that CESR issued guidelines in relation to several other matters concerning key investor information. These are:Guidelines - Selection and presentation of performance scenarios in the Key Investor Information document (KII) for structured UCITS (CESR/10-1318)www.esma.europa.eu/index.php?page=document_details&id=7333&from_id=28Guidelines - Transition from the Simplified Prospectus to the Key Investor Information document (CESR/10-1319)www.esma.europa.eu/index.php?page=document_details&id=7334&from_id=28CESR's
REC 2.11.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(g)

2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that-

where the [UK RIE's]facilitiesinclude making provision for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of thosefacilities, satisfactory arrangements are made for that purpose.

REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FSA may have regard to: (1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
REC 2.11.4GRP
Where a UK recognised body arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the recognition requirement in Regulation 6 of the Recognition Requirements Regulations (see REC 2.2).
LR 14.3.11GRP
A company2 whose shares4are admitted to trading on a regulated market in the United Kingdom, should consider its obligations under the disclosure rules and transparency rules.244
LR 14.3.15RRP
1(1) This rule applies to an overseas company for whom the United Kingdom is a host Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive.11(2) An overseas company must appoint a registrar in the United Kingdom if:11(a) there are 200 or more holders resident in the United Kingdom; or1(b) 10% of more of the shares4 are held by persons resident in the United Kingdom.14
LR 14.3.15AGRP
1An overseas company for whom the United Kingdom is the home Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive should see LR 14.3.22 G and LR 14.3.23 R.
PERG 2.5.1GRP
In addition to the requirements as to the business test and the link to the United Kingdom, two other essential elements must be present before a person needs authorisation under the Act. The first is that the investments must come within the scope of the system of regulation under the Act (see PERG 2.6). The second is that the activities, carried on in relation to those specified investments, are regulated under the Act (see PERG 2.7). Both investments and activities are defined
PERG 2.5.4ARP
2The UK has exercised the optional exemption in article 3 of MiFID. Further information about this exemption is contained in Q48 to 53 in PERG 13.5. It is a requirement of article 3 MiFID that the activities of firms relying on the exemption are "regulated at national level". The investment services to which article 3 apply (namely reception and transmission of orders and investment advice in relation to either transferable securities or units in collective investment undertakings)
REC 2.12.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(c)

4Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that -

(c)

appropriate arrangements are made forrelevant informationto be made available (whether by the [UK RIE] or, where appropriate, byissuersof the [specified investments]) topersonsengaged indealingin [specified investments] on the [UK RIE];

REC 2.12.2AUKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7A

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must make clear and transparent rules concerning the admission of financial instruments to trading on any financial market operated by it.

(2)

The rules must ensure that all financial instruments admitted to trading on any regulated market operated by the [UK RIE] are capable of being traded in a fair, orderly and efficient manner (in accordance with Chapter V of the [MiFID Regulation], where applicable).

(3)

The rules must ensure that -

(a)

all transferable securities admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by the [UK RIE] are freely negotiable (in accordance with Chapter V of the [MiFID Regulation], where applicable); and

(b)

all contracts for derivatives admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by the [UK RIE] are designed so as to allow for their orderly pricing as well as for the existence of effective settlement conditions.

(4)

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable the users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgments, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instrument traded.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must maintain effective arrangements to verify that issuers of transferable securities admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by it comply with the disclosure obligations.

(6)

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to assist users of a regulated market operated by it to obtain access to information made public under the disclosure obligations.

(7)

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements regularly to review whether the financial instruments admitted to trading on a regulated market operated by it comply with the admission requirements for those instruments.

(8)

The rules must provide that where a [UK RIE], without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a regulated market operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on another regulated market, the [UK RIE] -

(a)

must inform the issuer of that security as soon as is reasonably practicable; and

(b)

may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(9)

The rules must provide that where a [UK RIE], without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, it may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

...

(11)

This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4.

MCOB 1.3.1RRP
Except as set out in this section, MCOB applies if the customer of a firm carrying on home finance activities2 is resident in:2(1) the United Kingdom; or(2) another EEA State, but in this case only if the activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom;at the time that the home finance activity2 is carried on.2
MCOB 1.3.4RRP
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those
FEES 3.2.7RRP

Table of application, notification and vetting fees

(1) Fee payer

(2) Fee payable

Due date

(a) Any applicant for Part IV permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission)

(1) Unless (2) applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application.

(2) In respect of a particular application which is:

(i) a straightforward or moderately complex case for the purposes of FEES 3 Annex 1 part 1, and

(ii) only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6,

the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11

1

On or before the application is made

(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4

(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4

(2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable

On or before the notice of exercise is given

(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order

2,000

On or before the application is made

(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition of, a collective investment scheme

FEES 3 Annex 2, part 1

On or before the application is made

(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.

10,000

30 days after the order is granted

(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17

(i) under section 287 or section 288of the Act; or17

(ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(h) Any applicant for recognition as an overseas recognised body under section 287 or section 288 and section 292 of the Act

FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(i) An applicant for listing (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

On or before the date the application is made

(j) Applicant for approval as sponsor (under the listing rules)

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 2

On or before the date the application is made

(k) Issuers of tranches from debt issuance programmes and securitised derivative tranches

FEES 3 Annex 4, part 1

An upfront fee is required per tranche for draw downs in the following 12 months

(l) Under the listing rules, an issuer involved in specific events or transactions during the year where documentation is subject to a transaction vetting

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 1, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(m) Under the prospectus rules, an issuer or person requesting approval or vetting of the documents arising in relation to specific events or transactions that it might be involved in during the year

FEES 3 Annex 5, part 2, unless the transaction would come within the definition of significant transaction under category (v) or super transaction under category 7(q) in this table, in which case the fee payable under that category.2

On or before the date that relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA

(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges

50,000

On or before the date the application is made

2(o) Either:5

(i) a firm applying to the FSA for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FSA as EEA consolidated supervisor under the ) any firm making such an application ;5 or

(ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FSA5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FSA's assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 , any firm to which the FSA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5

112555

(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5

(2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application

(b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1

(c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance of the FSAas described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2

5251255555

Where the firm has made an application directly to the FSA, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FSA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested the FSA's assistance.2

2

(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part IV permission

(1) Unless (2) or (3)11 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1 not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in which apply to that application.

(2) If the only change is that the1 A.12 activity group tariff applied to the firm's business before the variation and the A.13 activity group will apply after variation, no fee is payable

(3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11

(4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250, unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part IV permission in which case no fee is payable.1

1111

On or before the date the application is made

2(q) A super7transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 1.5 billion and it is a new applicant for a premium listing1379 under the listing rules, or involved in a reverse or hostile takeover or a significant restructuring; or

(ii) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 5 billion and is involved in a class 1 transaction,7 a transaction requiring vetting of an equity prospectus or equivalent document or a transaction requiring vetting of a prospectus in relation to a Depositary Receipt.7

7137977

50,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.3

33

2(r) Providers of reporting or trade matching systems applying for recognition under MiFID as an Approved Reporting Mechanism.

100,0006

6

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.6

56

5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor.

Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.

Either (1) or (2) as set out below:

(1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 18,500; or

(2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 10,000.

On or before any application is made to the FSA for the appointment of a person as an independent expert.

6(t) A firm, a third party acting on a firm's behalf, an operator of a regulated market or an operator of an MTF applying to the FSA to report transaction reports directly to the FSA other than through the FSA's Transaction Reporting System (see FEES 4.2.11 R and FEES 4 Annex 3 for the fees payable for firms using the FSA's Transaction Reporting System).

100,000

Having received its application, within 30 days after the FSA has notified the applicant that it is to commence testing of the applicants systems.

7(u) Any of the following:

(i) an operator of an approved reporting mechanism;

(ii) a firm;

(iii) a third party acting on behalf of a firm;

(iv) a market operator; or

(v) an MTF operator;

that satisfies the following conditions:

(1) it provides transaction reports directly to the FSA; and

(2) having made changes to its reporting systems, it asks the FSA to support the testing of the compatibility of its systems with the FSA's systems.

As set out in FEES 3 Annex 7.

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.

(v) A significant transaction, being one where:

(i) the issuer has a market capitalisation in excess of 500 million and is producing an equity prospectus, a prospectus in relation to a Depository Receipt or a document in relation to a class 1 transaction; or

(ii) the issuer is producing a document for vetting in relation to a reverse takeover, a hostile takeover or a significant restructuring.

A significant transaction does not include a super transaction.

20,000

On or before the date that the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.

(w) A listed issuer that requests or whose representative requests the FSA to amend the Official List, or any records held by the FSA in relation to the Official List, otherwise than pursuant to an application for listing.

FEES 3 Annex 4 part 3

On or before the date the request is made.

(x)

(i) An issuer or person who:

(1) is a fee payer under one or more of the categories set out in (ii); and

(2) requests the FSA's approval or vetting of a document that includes a mineral expert's report.

(ii) The categories are (1), (m) (q), and (v) of this table.

(iii) A fee under this category is payable in addition to any fee payable under the categories set out in (ii).

5,000

On or before the date the relevant documentation is first submitted to the FSA.8

8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application.

Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in

FEES 3 Annex 8R

On or before the date the application is made.

(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 15 of the Payment Services Regulations applies

The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Payment Services Regulations.

(1) If the payment services carried on by the authorised payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.

(2) Where the

authorised payment institution:(i) already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) has authorisation to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its authorisation to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));

the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Payment Services Regulations

(1) If the payment services carried on by the small payment institution prior to the variation only fall within paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and any of the payment services in paragraphs (a) to (e) of that Schedule will apply after variation, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8Rwhich apply to that application.

(2) Where the small payment institution:

(i) is already registered to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other of the services in (a) to (g); or

(ii) is registered to provide payment services in either paragraph (f) or (g) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to extend its registration to include the other paragraph ((f) or (g));the fee payable is 250 irrespective of the number of agents it has.

(2)

(3) In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable.

On or before the date the application is made.

A financial institution notifying the FSA in accordance with regulation 121(2)(a) of the Payment Services Regulations.

50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3Annex 8R, paragraphs (2) to (5) which apply to that application.

On or before the date the application is made.

(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12

12

Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .

30 days of the date of the invoice.9

(zf) An applicant for a ceding insurer's waiver.

20,000

On or before the date the application is made.916

16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.

The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.

On or before the date the application is made.

15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.

2,500

On or before the date the application is made.18

18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.

(1) Unless (2) applies, 45,000.

(2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000.

On or before the date the application is made.

18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.

6,500

On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

SUP 16.1.4GRP
(1) This chapter contains requirements to report to the FSA on a regular basis. These requirements include reports relating to a firm's financial condition, and to its compliance with other rules and requirements which apply to the firm. Where the relevant requirements are set out in another section of the Handbook, this chapter contains cross references. An example of this is financial reporting for insurers and friendly societies.(2) Where such requirements already apply to
SUP 12.5.2AGRP
8If a UK MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm appoints an appointed representative that is a tied agent, regulation 3(6) of the Appointed Representative Regulations requires the contract between the firm and the appointed representative to contain a provision that the representative is only permitted to provide the services and carry on the activities referred to in Article 4(1)(25) of MiFID while he is entered on the applicable Register.
SUP 12.5.8RRP
8If a UK MiFID investment firm appoints an EEA tied agent, SUP 12.5.6A R (1A) applies to that firm as though the EEA tied agent were an appointed representative.[Note: articles 4(1)(25) and 23(1) of MiFID]
SUP 12.5.9GRP
8Under section 39A(6)(a) of the Act a UK MiFID investment firm must ensure that the contract it uses to appoint an FSA registered tied agent complies with the requirements that would apply under the Appointed Representative Regulations if it were appointing an appointed representative.
COLL 6.11.1RRP
(1) 1This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) This section does not apply to an EEA UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services.
COLL 6.11.2RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must establish and maintain a permanent risk management function.(2) The function referred to in (1) must be hierarchically and functionally independent from operating units, except where such independence would not be appropriate and proportionate in view of the nature, scale and complexity of the authorised fund manager’s or UK UCITS management company’s business and of
COLL 6.11.3GRP
Where the risk management function required under COLL 6.11.2 R (1) is not hierarchically and functionally independent, the authorised fund manager or UK UCITS management company should nevertheless be able to demonstrate that its risk management process satisfies the requirements of COLL 6.12.3 R (Risk management process) and that, in particular, the appropriate safeguards have been adopted.[Note: article 12(2) third paragraph and recital (12) of the UCITS implementing Dire
DTR 5.1.1RRP
1In this chapter:(1) references to an2 "issuer", in relation to shares admitted to trading on a regulated market, are to an issuer whose Home State is the United Kingdom;2(2) references to a "non-UKissuer" are to an issuer whose shares are admitted to trading on a regulated market and whose Home State is the United Kingdom other than:(a) a public company within the meaning of section 4(2)7of the Companies Act 200674; and434433477(b) a company which is otherwise incorporated in,
DTR 5.1.3RRP
Voting rights attaching to the following shares are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R:(1) shares acquired for the sole purpose of clearing and settlement within a settlement cycle not exceeding the period beginning with the transaction and ending at the close of the third trading day following the day of the execution of the transaction (irrespective of whether the transaction
DTR 5.1.5RRP
(1) The following are to be disregarded for the purposes of determining whether a person has a notification obligation in accordance with the thresholds in DTR 5.1.2 R except at the thresholds of 5% and 10% and above:(a) voting rights attaching to shares forming part of property belonging to another which that person lawfully manages under an agreement in, or evidenced in, writing;(b) voting rights attaching to shares which may be exercisable by a person in his capacity as the
DISP 1.3.1RRP
Effective and transparent procedures for the reasonable and prompt handling of complaints must be established, implemented and maintained by:(1) a respondent; and(2) a branch of a UKfirm in another EEA State.[Note: article 10 of the MiFID implementing Directive and article 6(1) of the UCITS implementing Directive]5
DISP 1.3.1BRRP
5A UK UCITS management company must ensure that the procedures it establishes under DISP 1.3.1 R for the reasonable and prompt handling of complaints require that:(1) there are no restrictions on Unitholders exercising their rights in the event that the UCITS is authorised in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(2) Unitholders are allowed to file complaints in any of the official languages of the Home State of the UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or of any EEA State
SUP 15.5.1RRP
A firm must give the FSA reasonable advance notice of a change in:(1) the firm's name (which is the registered name if the firm is a body corporate); (2) any business name under which the firm carries on a regulated activity or ancillary activity either from an establishment in the United Kingdom or with or for clients in the United Kingdom.
SUP 15.5.4RRP
A firm must give the FSA reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following addresses, and give details of the new address and the date of the change:(1) the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom; (2) in the case of an overseas firm, its registered office (or head office) address.
SUP 15.5.5RRP
A firm must give the FSA reasonable advance notice of a change in any of the following telephone numbers, and give details of the new telephone number and the date of the change:13(1) the number of the firm's principal place of business in the United Kingdom;(2) in the case of an overseas firm, the number of its head office.3
PERG 9.1.3GRP
This guidance is issued under section 157of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FSA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
PERG 9.1.4GRP
The only kind of body corporate of an open-ended kind that may currently be formed under the law of the United Kingdom is one that is authorised by the FSA. A person intending to form an open-ended body corporate that has its head office in Great Britain should refer to the Open-ended Investment Companies Regulations 2001 (SI 2001/1228). Bodies corporate formed under these Regulations are referred to in the Handbook as investment companies with variable capital (or ' ICVCs ').
ICOBS 8.2.1RRP
(1) This section applies to a motor vehicle liability insurer.(2) The rules in this section relating to the appointment of claims representatives apply in relation to claims by injured parties resulting from accidents occurring in an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence which are caused by the use of vehicles insured through an establishment in, and normally based in, an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence.(3) The rules in this
PERG 5.15.2GRP
Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation activities – do you need authorisation?
PERG 5.15.7GRP
The flow chart in PERG 5.15.8 G sets out the questions a person needs to consider in determining whether or not his regulated activities are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'.
PERG 5.15.8GRP
Flow chart: am I carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom?
FIT 2.1.1GRP
In determining a person's honesty, integrity and reputation, the FSA will have regard to all relevant 3matters including, but not limited to, those set out in FIT 2.1.3 G which may have arisen either in the United Kingdom or elsewhere. The FSA should be informed of these matters (see SUP 10.13.16 R ), but will consider the circumstances only where relevant to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system. For example, under FIT 2.1.3 G(1), conviction for a criminal
FIT 2.1.3GRP
The matters referred to in FIT 2.1.1 G to which the FSA will have regard include, include, but are not limited to:(1) whether the person has been convicted of any criminal offence; this must include, where provided for by the Exceptions Orderto2 the Rehabilitation of Offenders Act 1974, any spent convictions2; particular consideration will be given to offences of dishonesty, fraud, financial crime or an offence whether or not in the United Kingdom or other offences under legislation