Related provisions for SUP App 3.6.1
21 - 40 of 249 items.
(1) Before an EEA firm other than an EEA pure reinsurer3exercises an EEA right to establish a branch in the United Kingdom other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, the Act requires it to satisfy the establishment conditions, as set out in paragraph 13(1) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. (2) For the purposes of paragraph 13(1)(b)(iii) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be included in the consent notice has been prescribed under regulation 2 of
(1) When the FSA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any) to:(a) the EEA firm; and(b) in the case of an EEA firm passporting under the Insurance Directives, the Home State regulator;within two months of the notice2 date.2(1A) The notice date is:2(a) for a MiFID investment firm, the date on which the Home State gave the consent
(1) 1This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)(2) This chapter also applies to:(a) a Treaty firm that wishes to exercise rights
This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part IV of the Act (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised":http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml3); or 3(2) an EEA firm that carries on any insurance activity:(a) by the provision of
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order2 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:22(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(aA) authorised in Gibraltar under the Reinsurance Directive; or6(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive; or22(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or2(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the MiFID4.24(1A) Similarly,
(1) This chapter explains how an EEA firm and a Treaty firm can qualify for authorisation under Schedules 3 and 4 to the Act and how a UCITS qualifier is authorised under Schedule 5 to the Act. (2) This chapter also provides guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for an incoming EEA firm that wishes to establish a branch in the United Kingdom instead of, or in addition to, providing cross border services into the United Kingdom or vice versa.
(1) EEA firms should note that this chapter only addresses the procedures which the FSA will follow under the Act.So, an EEA firm should consider this guidance in conjunction with the requirements with which it will have to comply in its Home State. 6(2) The guidance in this chapter represents the FSA's interpretation of the Single Market Directives, the Act and the secondary legislation made under the Act. The guidance is not exhaustive and should not be seen as a substitute
Where an incoming EEA firm is exercising an EEA right, other than under the Insurance Mediation Directive, and has established a branch in the United Kingdom, the EEA Passport Rights Regulations govern any changes to the details of that branch. Where an incoming EEA firm has complied with the relevant requirements in the EEA Passport Rights Regulations, then the firm'spermission given under Schedule 3 to the Act is to be treated as varied accordingly. All references to regulations
6Where an EEA MiFID investment firm has established a branch in the UK, regulation 4A states that it must not:7(1) make a change in the requisite details of the branch; or7(2) use, for the first time, any tied agent established in the United Kingdom; or7(3) cease to use tied agents established in the United Kingdom;7unless it has complied with the relevant requirements in regulation 4A(3).7
6The relevant requirements in regulation 4A(3) are that:(1) the EEA MiFID investment firm has given notice to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; and(2) the period of one month beginning with the date on which the EEA MiFID investment firm gave the notice mentioned in (1) has elapsed.
6Changes to the requisite details may lead to changes to the applicable provisions to which the EEA MiFID investment firm is subject. The FSA will, as soon as practicable after receiving a notice in SUP 14.2.11 G inform the EEA MiFID investment firm of any consequential changes in the applicable provisions.
If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in more than one EEA State including
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in English and must also be made available either in a language
accepted by the competent authorities of each Host
State or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [Note: article
19.3
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
If admission
to trading of non-equity transferable
securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 50,000 euros (or an equivalent amount)
is sought in the United Kingdom or
in one or more other EEA States,
the prospectus must be drawn
up in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host
States or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as
If:(1) an offer is
made in the United Kingdom;(2) a prospectus relating
to the transferable securities has
been approved by the competent authority of another EEA
State and the prospectus contains
a summary; and(3) the prospectus is drawn up in a language other than English
that is customary in the sphere of international finance;222the offeror must
ensure that the summary is
translated into English. [ Note: article
19.2 PD ]
(1) This chapter applies to a firm which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an appointed representative.1(1A) This chapter applies to a UK MiFID investment firm which is considering appointing, has decided to appoint or has appointed an EEA tied agent.2(2) This chapter does not apply to a UCITS qualifier.1(3) This chapter does not apply in relation to a tied agent acting on behalf of an EEA MiFID investment firm unless that tied agent is established
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FSA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FSA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
13(1) 13This section applies to an ICVC, an ACD, a manager of an AUT, a depositary of an ICVC and a trustee of an AUT, where such ICVC or AUT is a UCITS scheme, in accordance with COLL 5.2.2 R (Table of application).(2) COLL 5.2.23C R (Valuation of OTC derivatives) also applies to a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.13
(1) A market is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if it is:(a) a regulated market;(b) a market in an EEA State which is regulated, operates regularly and is open to the public; or(c) any market within (2).(2) A market not falling within (1)(a) and (b) is eligible for the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook if:(a) the authorised fund manager, after consultation with and notification to the depositary (and in the case of an ICVC, any other directors),
(1) 7A UCITS scheme may invest in an approved money-market instrument if it is:(a) issued or guaranteed by any one of the following:(i) a central authority of an EEA State or, if the EEA State is a federal state, one of the members making up the federation;(ii) a regional or local authority of an EEA State;(iii) the Bank of England, the European Central Bank or a central bank of an EEA State;(iv) the European Union or the European Investment Bank;(v) a non-EEA State or, in the
(1) This rule applies to government and public securities ("such securities").(2) Where no more than 35% in value of the scheme property is invested in such securities issued by any one body, there is no limit on the amount which may be invested in such securities or in any one issue.(3) An authorised fund may invest more than 35% in value of the scheme property in such securities issued by any one body provided that:(a) the authorised fund manager has before any such investment
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (e):88(1) the second scheme must:(a) satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive; or(b) be recognised under the provisions of section 270 of the Act (Schemes
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 270of the Act.(2) Article 5013 of the UCITS Directive sets out the general investment limits. So, a non-UCITS retail scheme, or its equivalent EEAscheme which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set in COLL 5.2.13R (1)(c) and COLL 5.2.13R (1)(d).13(3) 8In determining whether a scheme meets the requirements of article 50(1)(e)13 of the UCITS Directive for the
(1) 13For the purposes of COLL 5.2.23 R (2), an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must:(a) establish, implement and maintain arrangements and procedures which ensure appropriate, transparent and fair valuation of the exposures of a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme to OTC derivatives; and(b) ensure that the fair value of OTC derivatives is subject to adequate, accurate and independent assessment.(2) Where the
13Authorised fund managers of UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes should bear in mind that where a UCITS scheme, or an EEA UCITS scheme that is a recognised scheme under section 264 of the Act, employs particular investment strategies such as investing more than 35% of its scheme property in government and public securities, or investing principally in units in collective investment schemes, deposits or derivatives, or replicating an index, COBS 4.13.2R (Marketing communications
(1) If the transferee is (or will be) an EEA firm (authorised in its Home State to carry on insurance business under the Insurance Directives) or a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA has to consult the transferee's Home State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. It will be necessary for the FSA to obtain from the transferee's Home State regulator a certificate confirming that the transferee will meet the Home State's solvency margin requirements (if any) after the
If the transferee is not (and will not be) authorised and will be neither an EEA firm nor a Swiss general insurance company, then the FSA will need to consult itsinsurance supervisor in the place where the business is to be transferred. The FSA will need confirmation from this supervisor that the transferee will meet his solvency margin requirements there (if any) after the transfer.
If the transferor is an UK insurer and the business to be transferred includes business carried on from a branch in another EEA State, then the FSA has to consult the Host State regulator, who has 3 months to respond. The FSA will need to be given the information that the Host State regulator requires from it. This information should identify the parties to the transfer and include the transfer agreement or draft transfer agreement or a summary containing relevant information,
If the transferor is anUK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a long-term insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the commitment is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom, then the FSA has to consult the Host State regulator. If the transferor is anUK insurer and the business to be transferred includes a general insurance contract (other than reinsurance) for which the state of the risk is an EEA state other than the United Kingdom,
Where the transferor is anUK-deposit insurer and, following the transfer, it will no longer be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom, the FSA will need to collaborate with regulatory bodies in the other EEA States in which it is carrying on business to ensure that effective supervision of the business carried on in the EEA continues. The transferor should cooperate with the FSA and the other regulatory bodies in this process and demonstrate that it will meet the
As the consent (or presumed consent) of the Host State is required for a transfer covering contracts for which another EEA State is the state of the risk (for general insurance business) or the state of the commitment (for long-term insurance business), it is advisable to obtain the consent of regulatory body in the Host State to any waiver of publication in that state. The approval of the court will still be required.
(1) A UK firm which is exercising an EEA right must make and retain a record of:(a) the services or activities it carries on from a branch in, or provides cross-border into, another EEA State under that EEA right; and(b) the details relating to those services or activities (as set out in SUP 13.6 and SUP 13.7)1.11(2) The record in (1) must be kept for five years (for firms passporting under MiFID) or 1three years (for other firms)1from the earlier of the date on which:(a) it was
If transferable securities are admitted to trading in more than one EEA State including the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed:(1) in English; and(2) either in a language accepted by the competent authorities of each Host State or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer. [Note: article 20(2) of the TD]
(1) If transferable securities are admitted to trading in one or more EEA States excluding the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either:(a) in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those Host States; or(b) in a language customary in the sphere of international finance,at the choice of the issuer.(2) Where the United Kingdom is the Home State, regulated information must be disclosed either in English or
If transferable securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 50,000 Euros (or an equivalent amount) are admitted to trading in the United Kingdom or in one or more EEA States, regulated information must be disclosed to the public in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host States or in a language customary in the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer or of the person who, without the issuer's consent,
(1) The amount payable by each firm will depend upon the category (or categories) of regulated activities or payment services7it is engaged in (fee-blocks)and whether it is issuing electronic money,10 and on the amount of business it conducts in each category (tariff base). The fee-blocks and tariffs are identified in in respect of the FCA and in respect of the PRAFEES 4 Annex 1 (and guidance on calculating certain of the tariffs is at FEES 4 Annex 12 G and ) ,8 while FEES
(1) A firm which becomes authorised or registered 7during the course of a financial year will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission or the right to provide particular payment services or the right to issue electronic money107- see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission or its right to provide particular payment services7so that its business then
The FSA recognises that its responsibilities in respect of an incoming EEA firm,7 an incoming Treaty firm, an EEA authorised payment institution7 or an EEA authorised electronic money institution10 are reduced compared with a firm which is incorporated in the United Kingdom. Accordingly the periodic fees which would otherwise be applicable to incoming EEA firms,7incoming Treaty firms,10EEA authorised payment institutions7 and EEA authorised electronic money institutions10 are
10For:10(-1) (a) a full credit institution which is a fee-paying payment service provider and an EEA firm; or(b) a full credit institution which is a fee-paying electronic money issuer and an EEA firm; or(c) an EEA authorised payment institution; or(d) an EEA authorised electronic money institution;the calculation required by FEES 4.3.3A R is modified as follows:(1) the tariffs set out in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 11 are only applied to the payment services or electronic money issuance10of
(1) The commencement of winding up of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must take place no sooner than 3 months after a notification is made to its unitholders and, where applicable, the competent authorities of the feeder UCITSHome State, informing them of the binding decision to wind up the master UCITS.(2) Paragraph (1) is without prejudice to any provision of the insolvency legislation in force in the United Kingdom regarding the compulsory liquidation of AUTs or ICVCs.[Note:
Where the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a feeder UCITS is notified that the master UCITS is to merge with another UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme or divide into two or more such schemes, it must submit to the FSA the following:(1) where the authorised fund manager of the feeder UCITS intends it to continue to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS:(a) its application under section 283A of the Act, for approval;(b) where applicable, a notice under section
(1) For the purposes of COLL 11.6.5R (1), a feeder UCITS will be considered as continuing to be a feeder UCITS of the same master UCITS where:(a) the master UCITS is the receiving UCITS in a proposed UCITS merger; or(b) the master UCITS is to continue materially unchanged as one of the resulting UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes in a proposed division.(2) For the purposes of COLL 11.6.5R (2), a feeder UCITS will be considered as becoming a feeder UCITS of another master UCITS
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FSA under section 251 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note: articles 20(3)
(1) Under the Gibraltar Order4 made under section 409 of the Act, a Gibraltar firm is treated as an EEA firm under Schedule 3 to the Act if it is:(a) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Directives; or(b) authorised in Gibraltar under the Banking Consolidation Directive;44(c) authorised in Gibraltar under the Insurance Mediation Directive; or4(d) authorised in Gibraltar under the Investment Services Directive .4(1A) 4Similarly, an EEA firm which:(a) has satisfied the Gibraltar
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part IV permission from the FSA to do so (see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml1). This might arise if the activity itself
Where the FSA grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the FSA is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator.
For guidance on how to apply for Part IV permission under the Act, see the FSA website "How do I get authorised": http://www.fsa.gov.uk/Pages/Doing/how/index.shtml.1 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part IV permission)).1
(1) 1This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) This section does not apply to an EEA UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services.
In complying with SYSC 4.3.1 R (Responsibility of senior personnel), an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure that its senior personnel:(1) are responsible for the implementation of the general investment policy for each scheme it manages, as defined, where relevant, in the prospectus or the instrument constituting the scheme;(2) oversee the approval of investment strategies for each scheme it manages;(3)
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure that its senior personnel receive, on a regular basis, reports on the implementation of investment strategies and of the internal procedures for taking the investment decisions referred to in COLL 6.10.2R (2) to COLL 6.10.2R (5).[Note: article 9(5) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
5A management company, when identifying the types of conflict of interests for the purposes of SYSC 10.1.4 R, must take into account:(1) the interests of the firm, including those deriving from its belonging to a group or from the performance of services and activities, the interests of the clients and the duty of the firm towards the UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme it manages; and(2) where it manages two or more UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes, the interests of all of them.[Note:
5For a management company, references to client in SYSC 10.1.4 R and in the other rules in this section should be construed as referring to any UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme managed by that firm or which it intends to manage, and with or for the benefit of which the relevant activity is to be carried on.
5A management company must be structured and organised in such a way as to minimise the risk of a UCITS scheme's, EEA UCITS scheme's or client's interests being prejudiced by conflicts of interest between the management company and its clients, between two of its clients, between one of its clients and a UCITS scheme or an EEA UCITS scheme, or between two such schemes.[Note: articles 12(1)(b) and 14(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive]
(1) 5Where the organisational or administrative arrangements made by a management company for the management of conflicts of interest are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of the UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme it manages or of its Unitholders will be prevented, the senior personnel or other competent internal body of the firm must be promptly informed in order for them to take any necessary decision to ensure that in
Under the Act and the Regulated Activities Order, the activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance are treated as being carried on in the United Kingdom on the basis of legal tests under which the location of the risk is only one factor. If the risk is located in the United Kingdom, then (other relevant factors being taken into account) the activity will, in the vast majority of cases, also be viewed as carried on in the United Kingdom. There are exceptions,
So, the effect of App 3.12.1 is that an insurer may be carrying on insurance business in the United Kingdom which is to be treated as a regulated activity under article 10 to the Regulated Activities Order (Effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance) in circumstances where the risks covered are treated as located in another EEA State. In that event, the insurer is required by Schedule 3 to the Act to passport into the State concerned and may be subject to conduct of business
An insurer authorised in another EEA State who is insuring UK risks and so passports on a services basis under the Insurance Directives into the United Kingdom (see ), may not be carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom. But, if it passports into the United Kingdom, it will qualify for authorisation under paragraph 12 of Schedule 3 to the Act (Firms qualifying for authorisation). Where this is the case, the insurer will be subject to conduct of business requirements
(1) This sourcebook, except for COLL 9 (Recognised schemes), applies to:(a) investment companies with variable capital (ICVCs);(b) ACDs, other directors and depositaries of ICVCs;3(c) managers and trustees of authorised unit trust schemes (AUTs); and3(d) to the extent indicated, UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes.3(2) COLL 9 applies to operators of schemes that are recognised schemes and to those seeking to secure recognised status for such schemes.(3) COLL
3An EEA UCITS management company that is providing collective portfolio management services for a UCITS scheme from a branch in the United Kingdom, or under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that where it operates a UCITS scheme as its designated management company, it meets the Glossary definition of an "ACD" of an ICVC or a "manager" of an AUT which in either case is a UCITS scheme. Such firms should be aware that provisions in this sourcebook that apply
3COLL 12 provides for the application of COLL in relation to the management company passport under the UCITS Directive. It explains how the passporting regime applies to both UK UCITS management companies and EEA UCITS management companies when providing collective portfolio management services on a cross-border basis. It also explains how the product passport (for UCITS) operates and how UCITS schemes may be marketed in other EEA States.
(1) 1This section applies to a firm in relation to a communication to a client, including an excluded communication, that is a marketing communication within the meaning of the UCITS Directive.(2) This section does not apply to:(a) image advertising; or(b) the instrument constituting the scheme, the prospectus, the key investor information (or alternatively the simplified prospectus or EEA simplified prospectus) or the periodic reports and accounts of either a UCITS scheme or
(1) A firm must ensure that a marketing communication that comprises an invitation to purchase units in a UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme and that contains specific information about the scheme:(a) makes no statement that contradicts or diminishes the significance of the information contained in the prospectus and the key investor information document or EEA key investor information document for the scheme;(b) indicates that a prospectus exists for the scheme and that the key
A firm must ensure that a marketing communication (other than a key investor information document or EEA key investor information document) relating to a feeder UCITS contains a statement that the feeder UCITS permanently invests at least 85% in value of its assets in units of its master UCITS.[Note: article 63(4) of the UCITS Directive]