Related provisions for SUP App 3.6.1

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LR 9.8.7ARRP
(1) 7An overseas company with a premium listing that is not required to comply with requirements imposed by another EEA State that correspond to DTR 7.2 (Corporate governance statements) must comply with DTR 7.2 as if it were an issuer to which that section applies.(2) An overseas company with a premium listing which complies with LR 9.8.7 R will be taken to satisfy the requirements of DTR 7.2.2 R and DTR 7.2.3 R, but (unless it is required to comply with requirements imposed
DISP 2.5.4AGRP
6DISP 2.5.1R (2)(l) includes complaints about the EEA end of 'one leg' payment services transactions, i.e. services provided from EEA establishments that are subject to the territorial jurisdiction of the Voluntary Jurisdiction (see DISP 2.6.4R (2)) that also involve a payment service provider located outside the EEA. It also includes complaints about payment services irrespective of the currency of the transaction.
LR 18.4.3ARRP
(1) 2An issuer within LR 18.4.3 R must publish its annual report and annual accounts as soon as possible after they have been approved. (2) An issuer within LR 18.4.3 R must approve and publish its annual report and accounts within six months of the end of the financial period to which they relate.(3) The annual report and accounts must:(a) have been prepared in accordance with the issuer's national law and, in all material respects, with national accounting standards or IAS;
COBS 11.1.5GRP
The EEA territorial scope rule modifies the default territorial scope of the section on personal account dealing (see COBS 11.7) to the extent necessary to be compatible with European law (see paragraph 1.1G5 of Part 3 of COBS 1 Annex 1). This means that the section on personal account dealing also applies to passported activities carried on by a UK MiFID investment firm or a UK UCITS management company5 from a branch in another EEA state, but does not apply to the UKbranch of
BIPRU 5.7.12RRP
In the case of guarantees provided in the context of mutual guarantee schemes recognised for these purposes by another EEA competent authority under a CRD implementation measure with respect to point 19 of Part 2 of Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive or provided by or counter-guaranteed by entities referred to in BIPRU 5.7.9 R, the requirements in BIPRU 5.7.11 R (1) – (3) will be satisfied where either of the following conditions are met:(1) the lending firm has
SYSC 6.1.7RRP
(1) 9This rule applies to a common platform firm conducting investment services and activities from a branch in another EEA State.(2) References to the regulatory system in SYSC 6.1.1R, SYSC 6.1.2 R and SYSC 6.1.3 R apply in respect of a firm'sbranch as if regulatory system includes a Host State's requirements under MiFID and the MiFID implementing Directive which are applicable to the investment services and activities conducted from the firm'sbranch.[Note: article 13(2) of
SUP 16.15.8DRP

The table below sets out the format, reporting frequency and due date for submission in relation to regulatory returns that apply to electronic money issuers that are not credit institutions.

(1)

Type of electronic money issuer

(2)

Return

(3)

Format

(4)

Reporting Frequency

(5)

Due date (Note 4)

Authorised electronic money institution (Note 1)

Balance sheet

FSA059

Half yearly (Note 3)

30 business days

Income statement

FSA060

Half yearly (Note 3)

30 business days

Capital requirements

FSA061

Half yearly (Note 3)

30 business days

Safeguarding

FSA062

Half yearly (Note 3)

30 business days

Supplementary information

FSA063

Half yearly (Note 3)

30 business days

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

Annual (Note 3)

80 business days

Small electronic money institutions (Note 2)

Return

FSA064

Half yearly (note 5)

30 business days

Total electronic money outstanding @ 31st December

FSA065

Annual (Note 5)

1 month

Annual report and accounts

No standard format

Annual (Note 5)

80 business days

(a) the Post Office Limited

(b) the Bank of England, the ECB and the national central banks of EEA States other than the United Kingdom

(c) Government departments and local authorities

(d) credit unions

(e) municipal banks

(f) the National Savings Bank

Average outstanding electronic money

No standard format

Half yearly (Note 6)

30 business days

Note 1

When submitting the completed returns required, the authorised electronic money institution must use the format of the returns set out in SUP 16 Annex 30A to SUP 16 Annex 30E.

Note 2

When submitting the completed returns required, the small electronic money institution must use the format of the returns set out in SUP 16 Annex 30F to SUP 16 Annex 30G.

Note 3

Where the authorised electronic money institution's reporting frequency is half yearly or annual, this field is calculated from the authorised electronic money institution'saccounting reference date.

Note 4

The due dates for returns are the last day of the periods given in column (5) of the table above following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in column (4) of the table above.

Note 5

The reporting frequency in relation to FSA065 is calculated from 31 December each calendar year. Otherwise, where the small electronic money institution's reporting frequency is half yearly or annual, this field is calculated from the small electronic money institution'saccounting reference date.

Note 6

This is calculated from 31 December each calendar year.
PERG 8.20.1GRP
Where collective investment schemes are concerned additional restrictions are placed on their promotion to ensure that only those which are regulated are promoted to the general public. This is achieved by a combination of sections 21 and 238 (Restrictions on promotion) of the Act as explained in PERG 8.20.2 G. A regulated collective investment scheme is:(1) an authorised unit trust scheme; or(2) an investment company with variable capital; or(3) a scheme recognised under section
PR 5.3.1UKRP

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State

87H

(1)

A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has provided the competent authority with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the prospectus as approved; and

(c)

if requested by the [FSA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.

(2)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.

(3)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(4)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State

87I

(1)

The [FSA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FSA]); and

(c)

a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).

(2)

Only the following may make a request under this section –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;

(b)

a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;

(c)

a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.

(3)

A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FSA].

(4)

A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FSA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(5)

The [FSA] must comply with a request under this section –

(a)

if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date of the request; or

(b)

if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.

(6)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

(7)

“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.
ICOBS 6.4.12GRP
(1) When explaining the implications of a change, a firm should explain any changes to the benefits and significant or unusual exclusions arising from the change.(2) Firms will need to consider whether mid-term changes are compatible with the original policy, in particular whether it reserves the right to vary premiums, charges or other terms. Firms also need to ensure that any terms which reserve the right to make variations are not themselves unfair under the Unfair Terms R
LR 9.2.6BRRP
1A listed company that is not already required to comply with the transparency rules (or with corresponding requirements imposed by another EEA Member State) must comply with DTR 4, DTR 5 and DTR 6 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of the transparency rules.
GENPRU 3.1.14GRP
The capital adequacy provisions of GENPRU 3.1 are designed to be applied to EEA-based financial conglomerates.
GEN 4.1.4RRP
3GEN 4.5 (Statements about authorisation and regulation by the FSA) applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, provided that, in the case of the MiFID business of an EEAMiFID investment firm or the activities of an EEA UCITS management company,4 it only applies to business conducted within the territory of the United Kingdom.
SYSC 2.1.6GRP

Frequently asked questions about allocation of functions in SYSC 2.1.3 R

This table belongs to SYSC 2.1.5 G

Question

Answer

1

Does an individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R need to be an approved person?

An individual to whom a function is allocated under SYSC 2.1.3 R will be performing the apportionment and oversight function (CF 8, see SUP 10.7.1 R) and an application must be made to the FSA for approval of the individual before the function is performed under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements). There are exceptions from this in SUP 10.1 (Approved persons - Application).

5

2

If the allocation is to more than one individual, can they perform the functions, or aspects of the functions, separately?

If the functions are allocated to joint chief executives under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, they are expected to act jointly. If the functions are allocated to an individual under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2, in addition to individuals under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, the former may normally be expected to perform a leading role in relation to the functions that reflects his position. Otherwise, yes.

3

What is meant by "appropriately allocate" in this context?

The allocation of functions should be compatible with delivering compliance with Principle 3, SYSC 2.1.1 R and SYSC 3.1.1 R. The FSA considers that allocation to one or two individuals is likely to be appropriate for most firms.

4

If a committee of management governs a firm or group, can the functions be allocated to every member of that committee?

Yes, as long as the allocation remains appropriate (see Question 3).If the firm also has an individual as chief executive, then the functions must be allocated to that individual as well under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see Question 7).

5

Does the definition of chief executive include the possessor of equivalent responsibilities with another title, such as a managing director or managing partner?

Yes.

6

Is it possible for a firm to have more than one individual as its chief executive?

Although unusual, some firm may wish the responsibility of a chief executive to be held jointly by more than one individual. In that case, each of them will be a chief executive and the functions must be allocated to all of them under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2 (see also Questions 2 and 7).

7

If a firm has an individual as chief executive, must the functions be allocated to that individual?

Normally, yes, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.

But if the firm is a body corporate and a member of a group, the functions may, instead of to the firm's chief executive, be allocated to a director or senior manager from the group responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division, so long as this is appropriate (see Question 3). Such individuals willnevertheless require approval by the FSA (see Question 1).

If the firm chooses to allocate the functions to a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of a relevant group division, the FSA would expect that individual to be of a seniority equivalent to or greater than a chief executive of the firm for the allocation to be appropriate.

See also Question 14.

8

If a firm has a chief executive, can the functions be allocated to other individuals in addition to the chief executive?

Yes. SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3, permits a firm to allocate the functions, additionally, to the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers as long as this is appropriate (see Question 3).

9

What if a firm does not have a chief executive?

Normally, the functions must be allocated to one or more individuals selected from the firm's (or where applicable the group's) directors and senior managers under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 3.

But if the firm:

(1) is a body corporate and a member of a group; and

(2) the group has a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group or of a relevant group division;

then the functions must be allocated to that individual (together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate) under SYSC 2.1.4 R, column 2.2

10

What do you mean by "group division within which some or all of the firm's regulated activities fall"?

A "division" in this context should be interpreted by reference to geographical operations, product lines or any other method by which the group's business is divided.

If the firm's regulated activities fall within more than one division and the firm does not wish to allocate the functions to its chief executive, the allocation must, under SYSC 2.1.4 R, be to:

(1) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of the group; or

(2) a director or senior manager responsible for the overall management of one of those divisions;

together, optionally, with individuals from column 3 if appropriate. (See also Questions 7 and 9.)

11

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an overseas firm which is not an incoming EEA firm, incoming Treaty firm or UCITS qualifier?

The firm must appropriately allocate those functions to one or more individuals, in accordance with SYSC 2.1.4 R, but:

(1) The responsibilities that must be apportioned and the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to activities carried on from a UK establishment with certain exceptions (see SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.7 R)6. Note that SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.10 R6 does not extend the territorial scope of SYSC 2 for an overseas firm.

(2) The chief executive of an overseas firm is the person responsible for the conduct of the firm's business within the United Kingdom (see the definition of "chief executive"). This might, for example, be the manager of the firm's UK establishment, or it might be the chief executive of the firm as a whole, if he has that responsibility.

The apportionment and oversight function applies to such a firm, unless it falls within a particular exception from the approved persons regime (see Question 1).

66

12

How does the requirement to allocate the functions in SYSC 2.1.3R apply to an incoming EEA firm or incoming Treaty firm?

SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.1R6and SYSC 1 Annex 1.1.8 R6restrict the application of SYSC 2.1.3 R for such a firm. Accordingly:

(1) Such a firm is not required to allocate the function of dealing with apportionment in SYSC 2.1.3 R (1).

(2) Such a firm is required to allocate the function of oversight in SYSC 2.1.3 R (2). However, the systems and controls that must be overseen are those relating to matters which the FSA, as Host State regulator, is entitled to regulate (there is guidance on this in SUP 13A Annex 2 G3). Those are primarily, but not exclusively, the systems and controls relating to the conduct of the firm's activities carried on from its UK branch.

(3) Such a firm need not allocate the function of oversight to its chief executive; it must allocate it to one or more directors and senior managers of the firm or the firm's group under SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (2).

(4) An incoming EEA firm which has provision only for cross border services is not required to allocate either function if it does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom; for example if they fall within the overseas persons exclusions in article 72 of the Regulated Activities Order.

See also Questions 1 and 15.1

663

13

What about a firm that is a partnership or a limited liability partnership?

The FSA envisages that most if not all partners or members will be either directors or senior managers, but this will depend on the constitution of the partnership (particularly in the case of a limited partnership) or limited liability partnership. A partnership or limited liability partnership may also have a chief executive (see Question 5). A limited liability partnership is a body corporate and, if a member of a group, will fall within SYSC 2.1.4 R, row (1) or (2).

14

What if generally accepted principles of good corporate governance recommend that the chief executive should not be involved in an aspect of corporate governance?

The Note to SYSC 2.1.4 R provides that the chief executive or other executive director or senior manager need not be involved in such circumstances. For example, the UK Corporate Governance Code7 recommends that the board of a listed company should establish an audit committee of non-executive directors to be responsible for oversight of the audit. That aspect of the oversight function may therefore be allocated to the members of such a committee without involving the chief executive. Such individuals may require approval by the FSA in relation to that function (see Question 1).

7

15

What about electronic commerce activities carried on from an establishment in another EEA State with or for a person in the United Kingdom?4

4

SYSC does not apply to an incoming ECA provider acting as such.1

4
PERG 5.3.8GRP
Large risks situated outside the EEA are also excluded (described in more detail at PERG 5.11.16 G (Large risks)). The location of the risk or commitment may be determined by reference to the EEA State in which the risk is situated, defined in article 2(d) of the Second Non-Life Directive (88/357/EEC) or the EEA State of the commitment, defined in article 1(1)(g) of the Consolidated Life Directive (2002/83/EC).Broadly put, this is:(1) for insurance relating to buildings and/or
SUP 11.5.4GRP
Firms are reminded that a change in control may give rise to a change in the groupcompanies to which the FSA's consolidated financial supervision requirements apply. Also, the firm may for the first time become subject to the FSA's requirements on consolidated financial supervision (or equivalent requirements imposed by another EEA State). This may apply, for example, if the controller is itself an authorised undertaking. The FSA may therefore request such a firm, controller or
DTR 4.4.1RRP
The rules on annual financial reports (DTR 4.1), half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2)and interim management statements (DTR 4.3) do not apply to a state, a regional or local authority of a state, a public international body of which areleast one EEA State is a member, the ECB and EEA States' national central banks.[Note: article 8(1)(a) of the TD]