1Introduction |
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1. |
TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E. |
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2. |
This Appendix sets out: |
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(1) |
the criteria which the FSA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and |
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(2) |
the information the FSA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E. |
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Criteria for assessing a qualification provider |
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3. |
The FSA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FSA's opinion: |
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(1) |
assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified; |
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(2) |
valid, reliable and robust assessment methods; |
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(3) |
robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest; |
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(4) |
procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date; |
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(5) |
robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards; |
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(6) |
robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services; |
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(7) |
appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services; |
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(8) |
procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly; |
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(9) |
robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and |
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(10) |
adequate resources in order to be financially viable. |
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Information about the qualification to be provided to the FSA |
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4. |
If a qualification provider asks the FSA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FSA will expect the qualification provider to: |
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(1) |
where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed; |
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(2) |
specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates; |
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(3) |
set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates; |
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(4) |
where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement; |
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(5) |
provide the relevant learning materials to the FSA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified; |
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(6) |
where applicable, explain how grading is applied; |
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(7) |
where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination; |
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(8) |
provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements; |
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(9) |
where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification; |
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(10) |
provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and |
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(11) |
provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications. |
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Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FSA |
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5. |
When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FSA may consider, where relevant: |
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(1) |
whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for: |
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(a) |
meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and |
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(b) |
reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties; |
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(2) |
any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator; |
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(3) |
the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications; |
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(4) |
the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures; |
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(5) |
how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and |
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(6) |
whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards; |
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(7) |
information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3. |
Related provisions for MCOB 5.4.20
121 - 140 of 187 items.
The criteria for determining whether it is appropriate to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty include those factors that the FSA will consider in1 determining the amount of penalty set out in DEPP 6.5 A to DEPP 6.5 D.1 Some particular considerations that may be relevant when the FSA determines whether to issue a public censure rather than impose a financial penalty are:1(1) whether or not deterrence may be effectively achieved by issuing a public censure;(2)
4The processes that a firm should have in place in order to comply with DISP 1.3.3 R may include, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's business including, in particular, the number of complaints the firm receives:(1) the collection of management information on the causes of complaints and the products and services complaints relate to, including information about complaints that are resolved by the firm by close of business on the business day following
A firm may treat contractual netting as risk-reducing only under the following conditions:(1) the firm must have a contractual netting agreement with its counterparty which creates a single legal obligation, covering all included transactions, such that, in the event of a counterparty's failure to perform owing to default, bankruptcy, liquidation or any other similar circumstance, the firm would have a claim to receive or an obligation to pay only the net sum of the positive and
DISP 1.3.3 R requires the firm to put in place appropriate management controls and take reasonable steps to ensure that in handling complaints it identifies and remedies any recurring or systemic problems. If a firm receives complaints about its sales of payment protection contracts it should analyse the root causes of those complaints including, but not limited to, the consideration of:(1) the concerns raised by complainants (both at the time of the sale and subsequently);(2)
A firm should ensure that the systems and controls include:1(1) appropriate training for its employees in relation to money laundering;(2) appropriate provision of information to its governing body and senior management, including a report at least annually by that firm'smoney laundering reporting officer (MLRO) on the operation and effectiveness of those systems and controls;(3) appropriate documentation of its risk management policies and risk profile in relation to money laundering,
(1) A firm must make and retain an adequate record of the information that it provides to each customer at the start of the regulated mortgage contract in accordance with this section.(2) The record required by (1) must be maintained for a year from the date that the information is provided to the customer.
(1) CASS 5.1 to CASS
5.6 apply, subject to (2), (3) and CASS 5.1.3 R to CASS 5.1.6 R, to a firm that receives
or holds money in the course
of or in connection with its insurance mediation
activity.(2) CASS 5.1 to CASS
5.6 do not, subject to (3), apply:(a) to
a firm to the extent that it
acts in accordance with the client
money chapter; or64(b) to
a firm in carrying on an insurance mediation activity which is in
respect of a reinsurance contract;
or(c) to
an insurance undertaking
A firm must retain a copy of any confirmation despatched to a client under this section:(1) for MiFID or equivalent third country business, for a period of at least five years; or(2) for business that is not MiFID or equivalent third country business, for a period of at least three years;from the date of despatch. [Note: see article 51(3) of the MiFID implementing Directive]
The documentation maintained by a BIPRUfirm under SYSC 4.1.3 R should include its policy for credit risk, including its risk appetite and provisioning policy and should describe how it measures, monitors and controls that risk. This should include descriptions of the systems used to ensure that the policy is correctly implemented.
(1) A firm must not agree to:(a) deal in investments as agent for an insurance undertaking in connection with insurance mediation; or(b) act
as agent for an insurance undertaking for
the purpose of settling claims or handling premium refunds;
or(c) otherwise
receive money as agent of an insurance undertaking;unless:(d) it
has entered into a written agreement with the insurance
undertaking to that effect; and(e) it
is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the terms of the policies
(1) A firm must make a record of the information disclosed to the client in accordance with COBS 2.3.1R (2)(b)4 and must keep that record for at least five years from the date on which it was given.4(2) A firm must also 4make a record of each benefit given to another firm which does not have to be disclosed to the client4in accordance with COBS 2.3.1R (2)(b)(ii),4 and must keep that record for at least five years from the date on which it was given.14 [Note: see article 51(3)
In having regard to the cost implications of using the section 166 power (Reports by skilled persons) alternative options (such as visits) or other powers, the FSA will take into account relevant factors, including:(1) whether the firm may derive some benefit from the work carried out and recommendations made by the skilled person, for instance a better understanding of its business and its risk profile, or the operation of its information systems, or improvements to its systems